Average value of the impulse as the parameters vary

  • #1
keyzan
17
6
TL;DR Summary: A particle of mass m, placed in an infinite rectangular one-dimensional potential well that confines it in the segment between x=-a/2 and x=a/2

Hi guys, I need help with this exercise which reads: a particle of mass m, placed in an infinite rectangular one-dimensional potential well that confines it in the segment between x=-a/2 and x=a/2, is in the state :

1705935717912.png

being |1> and |2> normalized kets representative of the ground state and the first excited one.
1. Determine the possible outcomes of an energy measurement and the related probabilities as a function of the real alpha and beta parameters.
Solution:

I applied the fourth postulate in the specific case with discrete eigenvalues and without degeneracy. I got:
1705936030810.png

it's right?
2. Determine the average value of the impulse as the parameters vary.
Solution:
In this case I don't really know how to proceed and in general in these cases I don't know how to proceed (when it comes to average values in general). I found:
1705936451056.png

At this point I should consider that the impulse p=(h/2*pi)*k. And since I know k of the different eigenstates I can find:
1705936839758.png

And continue in this way? But my reasoning seems very forced, I don't know. I'm doing it wrong?
 
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  • #2
@keyzan please use the PF LaTeX feature to post equations directly. Equations in images are not acceptable as it's harder to read them and they can't be quoted. There is a LaTeX Guide link at the bottom left of the post window.
 
  • #3
@keyzan I see that this is a homework exercise, so I have moved this thread to the advanced physics homework forum.
 
  • #4
ok i will do it next time
 
  • #5
keyzan said:
ok i will do it next time
If you want this thread to continue, you need to post your equations directly here.
 
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  • #6
ok. The general state is: $$|\psi \rangle = cos\alpha |1\rangle + e^{i \beta} sin\alpha |2\rangle$$

For solution 1:
$$P(1) = \frac {|\langle1|\psi\rangle|^2} {\langle\psi|\psi\rangle} = \frac {|\cos\alpha|^2} {cos^2\alpha + sin^2\alpha} = cos^2\alpha$$

and

$$P(2) = \frac {|\langle2|\psi\rangle|^2} {\langle\psi|\psi\rangle} = \frac {|\sin\alpha|^2} {cos^2\alpha + sin^2\alpha} = sin^2\alpha$$

For solution 2:

$$\bar p = \langle\psi|\hat P | \psi\rangle = (cos\alpha\langle1| + e^{-i\beta}sin\alpha\langle2|)\hat P(cos\alpha|1\rangle + e^{-i\beta}sin\alpha|2\rangle) =$$ $$= cos^2\alpha \langle 1|\hat P|1\rangle + sin\alpha cos\alpha e^{i\beta} \langle 1|\hat P|2\rangle + sin\alpha cos\alpha e^{-i\beta} \langle 2| \hat P |1\rangle + sin^2\alpha \langle 2|\hat P |2 \rangle $$

Finally I replace:

$$\hat P = \hbar k = \hbar \sqrt{\frac {2m\hat E} {\hbar^2}} $$
 
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  • #7
So, if what I wrote is right, I continue the exercise. So, with ##n## and ##m## representing stationary states ##1## and ##2## in each combination, i need:
$$\sqrt{2m} \space \langle n| \sqrt{\hat H} |m \rangle$$

At this point I consider the fact that the Hamiltonian in the basis of its eigenkets is represented by a diagonal matrix with its eigenvalues on the diagonal. So, the non-null values are:

$$\langle 1| \sqrt{\hat H} |1 \rangle = \sqrt{E_{1}} \langle 1|1 \rangle = \sqrt{E_{1}}$$ e
$$\langle 2| \sqrt{\hat H} |2 \rangle = \sqrt{E_{2}} \langle 2|2 \rangle = \sqrt{E_{2}}$$

keyzan said:
p¯=⟨ψ|P^|ψ⟩=(cosα⟨1|+e−iβsinα⟨2|)P^(cosα|1⟩+e−iβsinα|2⟩)=

So this becomes:
$$\bar p = \langle \psi| \hat P |\psi \rangle = cos^2 \alpha \sqrt{2m E_{1}} + sin^2 \alpha \sqrt{2m E_{2}}$$

In this relationship ##E_{1}## and ##E_{2}## have values that vary as the width ##a## of the hole varies. We represent graphically how the average value of the impulse varies as the ##\alpha## parameter varies:
1706096855010.png


Obviously considering that ##E_{2}>E_{1}##. If its's ok let me now :)
 
  • #8
I do not understand the original question. What is the "average impulse"? You have equated it loosely to the momentum and done some questionable manipulation (the expectation of pk for either bound eigenstate is zero) and so I am adrift here as to your answer as well. Is the question quoted exactly?
 
  • #9
I have a particle of mass ##m## in a infinite rectangular potential between ##x=-\frac{a} {2}## and ## x=\frac{a} {2}##. This particle is in the state:

keyzan said:
$$|\psi \rangle = cos\alpha |1\rangle + e^{i \beta} sin\alpha |2\rangle$$

I have to calculate:
keyzan said:
$$\bar p = \langle\psi|\hat P | \psi\rangle$$

My solution:
Since i don't know (or i don't remember) how to calculate this, i thought to use this formula:
$$p = \hbar k = \hbar \sqrt{\frac {2mE} {\hbar ^2}}$$
If i consider these to be operators i have:

keyzan said:
$$\hat P = \hbar k = \hbar \sqrt{\frac {2m\hat H} {\hbar^2}} $$

The if i replace in ##\bar p## I have:

$$\bar p = \sqrt{2m} \langle \psi | \sqrt{\hat H} |\psi \rangle $$

Question:

Can i do this?
Sorry for the mess but is my first post :)
 
  • #10
It depends upon what you are trying to do.
What is "average impulse"?
You can write $$E= (p^2)/2m$$ but not $$p=\sqrt {2mE}$$ because p is a vector (a signed number in 1D)
 
  • #11
Is the expectation value of the observable P as you can see from the formula.

Ok I said heresy. I obviously can't do this cause we're talking about operators.. I think I just need to solve the integral:
$$ \int_{-\frac {a} {2}}^{\frac {a} {2}} \psi^*(x) \space \hat P \space \psi(x) dx \, = \int_{-\frac {a} {2}}^{\frac {a} {2}} \psi^*(x) \space -i\hbar \frac {d} {dx} \space \psi(x) dx$$

So I need the projection of ##|\psi \rangle## on ##|x \rangle##. So I need:
$$ \psi (x) = \langle x | \psi \rangle $$

It all comes down to calculation of:

##\langle x | 1 \rangle ## and ##\langle x | 2 \rangle ##

that are the stationary states in the state 1 e 2:

$$\psi_1 (x) = \sqrt {\frac {2} {a}} cos(\frac {\pi x} {a})$$
and
$$\psi_2 (x) = \sqrt {\frac {2} {a}} cos(\frac {\pi x} {a} 2)$$

So we have:

$$\psi (x) = \langle x | \psi \rangle = cos\alpha \sqrt {\frac {2} {a}} cos(\frac {\pi x} {a}) + e^{i\beta} sin\alpha \sqrt {\frac {2} {a}} cos(\frac {\pi x} {a} 2)$$

Now I can calculate the integral. Do you agree?
 
  • #12
But what does the operator you defined represent? The(long) time average of impulse on a bound particle is identically zero. I can make up lots of operators...... Are you intersted in the average magnitude of the impulse delivered to (or by) the walls of the box??? Impulse is not a very quantum Mechanical idea and I have no real idea why this is at all interesting (except as an arbitrary exercise).
 
Last edited:
  • #13
It seems that the term “average value of the impulse”, used in the original question, is a mistake.

Also the OP uses "##~\bar p~##". I would expect that to represent the time-average of momentum which is inappropriate.

What is probably required is the expectation value of the momentum, ##\langle p \rangle##.

The OP needs to confirm (or otherwise clarify) this.

Further thoughts…

Although ##\langle p \rangle = 0## for the energy-eigenstates, I believe this is not necessarily true for superpositions. If so, the OP’s approach in Post#11 looks OK to me (as an amateur!). [Whoops - there's a mistake in Post #11; see Edit 2 below.]

Edit 1: typo'
Edit 2. In post #11, ##\psi_2 (x) = \sqrt {\frac {2} {a}} cos(\frac {\pi x} {a} 2)## is wrong. That's not the wavefunction for the 1st excited level.
 
Last edited:
  • #14
The formalism attempted by the OP is fine. The states he chooses are not correct and I do not understand the purpose .
Steve4Physics said:
Although ⟨p⟩=0 for the energy-eigenstates, I believe this is not necessarily true for superpositions.
What is p?. If it is p then perhaps. If it is |p| =√(2mE) then manifestly this is not zero for energy eigenstates. But I remain befuddled by the question. (not an unusual state for me...........)
 
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  • #15
hutchphd said:
The formalism attempted by the OP is fine. The states he chooses are not correct
Well spotted. I assume you mean that the OP used the wrong wavefunction for ##|2 \rangle##.

hutchphd said:
What is p?. If it is p then perhaps.
I was sloppy - I should have written ##\langle \bf p \rangle## rather than ##\langle p \rangle##.

I still think the intended question is to find ##\langle \bf p \rangle## in terms of ##\alpha## and ##\beta##.. But the OP seems to have stopped replying so we'll probably never know.
 
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1. How is the average value of the impulse calculated as the parameters vary?

The average value of the impulse is calculated by taking the integral of the impulse over a specified time interval and dividing it by the duration of that interval. As the parameters vary, the impulse function may change, resulting in different average values.

2. What factors can affect the average value of the impulse as parameters change?

Factors such as the amplitude, duration, and shape of the impulse can all affect the average value as parameters vary. Additionally, changes in the frequency or phase of the impulse can also impact its average value.

3. How do changes in the parameters of the impulse affect its average value?

Changes in the parameters of the impulse, such as increasing the duration or amplitude, can result in a higher average value. Conversely, decreasing these parameters may lead to a lower average value of the impulse.

4. Can the average value of the impulse be negative as parameters vary?

Yes, the average value of the impulse can be negative as parameters vary. This can occur if the impulse function spends more time in the negative region compared to the positive region, resulting in a negative average value.

5. How can the average value of the impulse be used in practical applications?

The average value of the impulse can be used to calculate the average force or momentum transfer in systems where impulses are present. This information is crucial in understanding the overall impact of the impulse on a system and can be used to optimize performance or make design improvements.

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