Answer: 10-Card Hand w/ 2 4-of-a-Kinds - No Pairs/3 of a Kinds

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves determining the number of 10-card hands from a standard 52-card deck that contain exactly two 4-of-a-kinds, with no pairs or 3-of-a-kinds present.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods for calculating the number of valid hands, including combinatorial reasoning and consideration of card selection constraints. There are attempts to verify correctness and avoid double counting.

Discussion Status

Multiple approaches have been presented, with some participants confirming similar results. There is ongoing exploration of different reasoning paths, and while some methods appear promising, there is no explicit consensus on a single approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are mindful of the constraints imposed by the problem, specifically the requirement for no pairs or 3-of-a-kinds, which influences their reasoning and calculations.

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Homework Statement


How many 10-card hands are there chosen from a standard 52-card deck in which there are exactly two 4-of-a-kinds; no pairs or 3-of-a-kinds?

The Attempt at a Solution


if there are exactly 2 4 of a kinds that takes up 8 of the 10 cards in the hand and the remaining 2 must be of different kinds since there are no pairs. first we choose 2 kinds for the 4 of a kinds: 13C2 ways . now we have to make sure the last 2 cards are of different kinds so we pick 2 of the remaining 11 kinds: 11C2 ways. now for each of these kinds there are 4 ways to pick a card from them so 4x4 = 16.

the whole process is:
(13C2)(11C2)(16)

is this correct? I want to make sure I am not double counting anything
 
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Looks good; I got the same answer with the same reasoning before looking at your solution.
 
By using a slightly different reasoning, I got ##{{13}\choose{2}}({{44}\choose{2}}-11{{4}\choose{2}})##
Both our results give 68640, so that looks promising.
 
Another way to finish it off:

Once you have the two fours. The next card can be anything (44 cards) and the last card anything of a different kind (40 cards).
 
PeroK said:
Another way to finish it off:

Once you have the two fours. The next card can be anything (44 cards) and the last card anything of a different kind (40 cards).
This doesn't work because you would double count. Order of the draw doesn't matter, so you have to divide by 2!.

$$16\frac{11!}{2!9!} = \frac{16*11*10}{2} = \frac{44*40}{2}$$
 
Yes, that's what I meant!
 
thanks everyone
 

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