Anyone care to explain the TA's note? (1 Viewer)

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1,642
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Omega here is frequency.

I used lambda = c/f. Why is it (2*pi*c)/omega and not c/f or c/omega?

http://i111.photobucket.com/albums/n149/camarolt4z28/2010-10-04203213.jpg?t=1286245112 [Broken]

http://i111.photobucket.com/albums/n149/camarolt4z28/2010-10-04203118.jpg?t=1286245065 [Broken]
 
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fzero

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It looks like the formula you used was derived as

[tex] \omega_{ij} = \frac{E_j - E_i}{\hbar}, [/tex]

which is an angular frequency as can be seen from the presence of [tex]\hbar[/tex] rather than [tex]h[/tex].
 
1,642
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It looks like the formula you used was derived as

[tex] \omega_{ij} = \frac{E_j - E_i}{\hbar}, [/tex]

which is an angular frequency as can be seen from the presence of [tex]\hbar[/tex] rather than [tex]h[/tex].
Yeah. But h-bar is already in the denominator in the formula I used to calculate [tex]omega_{ij}[/tex].
 

fzero

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The wavelength is still [tex]2\pi c/\omega[/tex].
 

cristo

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Why not ask your TA for clarification?
 
1,642
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Why not ask your TA for clarification?
I forgot. I already bugged him about two other problems. I did poorly on this damn homework.
 

fzero

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It is, but [tex]\omega = 2\pi f[/tex].
Well, that's my mistake. I wasn't taking omega to be an angular frequency. Why? I don't know. Son of a *****.
 

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