Anyone up to double check an isomorphism proof?

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    Isomorphism Proof
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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving isomorphisms between binary structures, specifically focusing on exercises related to properties of bijections and homomorphisms in algebraic structures. The original poster shares a proof attempt regarding an isomorphism and seeks feedback on the correctness of their reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of the original proof attempt, questioning the application of a lemma and the existence of an identity element in the structure. Some suggest clarifying definitions and the implications of the isomorphism.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing dialogue about the proofs for exercises 32 and 33, with participants providing feedback and corrections. Some participants express confidence in the proofs, while others raise concerns about assumptions and the use of specific lemmas. The discussion appears to be productive, with participants actively engaging in clarifying points of confusion.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the definitions used in the problem may be untraditional, and there is a mention of a lemma that may not be applicable due to the lack of an identity element in the original structure.

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Homework Statement




*Attached is the problem statement, along with a definition which is to be used (I feel like some of the definitions in this text are somewhat untraditional, so I am including this one for clarity).

Edit* sorry, it's problem #31.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution




Let <T, !> be any binary structure isomorphic with <S,*>. This means there is some bijection Ψ: S → T such that (∀s1,s2 ∈ S)(Ψ(s1*s2) = Ψ(s1)!Ψ(s2)). Now let d ∈ T. Since Ψ is surjective, there is some c ∈ S such that Ψ(c) = d. But then there is some x ∈ S such that x*x = c. As a result, Ψ(x*x) = Ψ(c) = d = Ψ(x)!Ψ(x).

Q.E.D.
 

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This is ok, Syrus!
 
Thank you, micromass =)
 
I was recently assigned more problems similar to that above. I figured I may as well post these as well since they correlate with the original post and I have time until they are due.


The proofs for exercises 32 and 33 are below. The original questions and other related materials are attached as thumbnails.


32: Let <T, !> be any binary structure isomorphic with <S,*>. This means there is some bijection Ψ: S → T such that (∀s1,s2 ∈ S)(Ψ(s1*s2) = Ψ(s1)!Ψ(s2)). Take b to be the identity element of S under *. Clearly, then, b*b = b. As a result, Ψ(b*b) = Ψ(b)!Ψ(b). By lemma 3.14 (attached above), however, Ψ(b) is the identity element of T under !. Hence, Ψ(b)!Ψ(b) = Ψ(b).

Q.E.D.

*from here on, C denotes the set of complex numbers, and R the set of reals.. the funky brackets are my best attempt at 2 X 2 matrices (i.e. in [a b] [a b] the a's should be in a line vertically).


33a: Let Ψ: C → H defined as follows: for any complex number, say x, of the form a + bi, where a,b ∈ R and i2 = -1, Ψ(x) = [a -b]
[b a].
Let j ∈ H. So j is a matrix of the form above ^, for some a,b ∈ R. But then we have k = a +bi ∈ C, and so Ψ(k) = [a -b]
[b a]. Thus, Ψ is surjective.
Now let m,n ∈ C. Then m = c +di and n = f + gi for some c,d,f,g ∈ R. Now suppose Ψ(m) = Ψ(n). Then equating matrices shows that c = f and d = g, and so m = c +di = f + gi = n. Hence, Ψ is injective.
Lastly, let j,k ∈ C. Then j = a + bi for some real nubmers a and b. Also, k = c + di for some real numbers c and d. Thus, Ψ(j + k) = Ψ((a + bi) + (c + di)) = Ψ((a + c) + (b+d)i) = Ψ(j) + Ψ(k). Thus, Ψ satisfies the homomorphism property.

33b: The proofs for injectivity and surjectivity are identical to those in part a. The proof of the homomorphism property is as follows: Let Ψ be defined as above. Let x,y ∈ C. Then x = j + ki and y = m + ni for some j,k,n,m in R. Thus, Ψ(x*y) = Ψ((j + ki) * (m +ni)) = Ψ(jm + jni + kmi - kn) = Ψ((jm - kn) + (jn + km)i) = Ψ(j) * Ψ(k).

Q.E.D.
 

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Syrus said:
I was recently assigned more problems similar to that above. I figured I may as well post these as well since they correlate with the original post and I have time until they are due.


The proofs for exercises 32 and 33 are below. The original questions and other related materials are attached as thumbnails.


32: Let <T, !> be any binary structure isomorphic with <S,*>. This means there is some bijection Ψ: S → T such that (∀s1,s2 ∈ S)(Ψ(s1*s2) = Ψ(s1)!Ψ(s2)). Take b to be the identity element of S under *. Clearly, then, b*b = b. As a result, Ψ(b*b) = Ψ(b)!Ψ(b).

Shouldn't that be: as a result [itex]\psi(b)=\psi(b*b)=\psi(b) ! \psi(b)[/itex]. And doesn't the proof end here??

By lemma 3.14 (attached above), however, Ψ(b) is the identity element of T under !. Hence, Ψ(b)!Ψ(b) = Ψ(b).

I don't see what you're doing here. And I don't see why you use lemma 3.14. Nobody said that (S,*) has an identity. So lemma 3.14 isn't even applicable!

33a: Let Ψ: C → H defined as follows: for any complex number, say x, of the form a + bi, where a,b ∈ R and i2 = -1, Ψ(x) = [a -b]
[b a].
Let j ∈ H. So j is a matrix of the form above ^, for some a,b ∈ R. But then we have k = a +bi ∈ C, and so Ψ(k) = [a -b]
[b a]. Thus, Ψ is surjective.
Now let m,n ∈ C. Then m = c +di and n = f + gi for some c,d,f,g ∈ R. Now suppose Ψ(m) = Ψ(n). Then equating matrices shows that c = f and d = g, and so m = c +di = f + gi = n. Hence, Ψ is injective.
Lastly, let j,k ∈ C. Then j = a + bi for some real nubmers a and b. Also, k = c + di for some real numbers c and d. Thus, Ψ(j + k) = Ψ((a + bi) + (c + di)) = Ψ((a + c) + (b+d)i) = Ψ(j) + Ψ(k). Thus, Ψ satisfies the homomorphism property.

33b: The proofs for injectivity and surjectivity are identical to those in part a. The proof of the homomorphism property is as follows: Let Ψ be defined as above. Let x,y ∈ C. Then x = j + ki and y = m + ni for some j,k,n,m in R. Thus, Ψ(x*y) = Ψ((j + ki) * (m +ni)) = Ψ(jm + jni + kmi - kn) = Ψ((jm - kn) + (jn + km)i) = Ψ(j) * Ψ(k). Q.E.D.

This looks quite ok!
 
Yes, youre correct micromass. It was my slip up, I can use the equivalence between (b*b) and b, along with the definition of isomorphism to show that psi(b) = psi(b)!psi(b).

Thanks again for your time.

Cyrus
 

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