Approximating Integral via Power Series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around approximating the integral \(\int_0^{1/2} x^2 e^{-x^2}\, dx\) using power series. Participants are exploring the validity of interchanging summation and integration in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of power series to express the integrand and question the justification for interchanging the integral and summation. There are inquiries about the application of the ratio test and the alternating series test for error approximation.

Discussion Status

Several participants are engaged in clarifying the algebraic steps involved in the problem. There is a focus on the conditions under which term-by-term integration is valid, with some suggesting that the original poster may not need to justify this interchange explicitly.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the algebraic manipulations and the assumptions made in the problem setup. There is a mention of the original poster's level in calculus, indicating a potential gap in understanding the underlying principles of power series and their convergence.

Amrator
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Homework Statement


Approximate the integral to 3 decimal place accuracy via power series.

##\int_0^{1/2} x^2 e^{-x^2}\, dx ##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


##x^2 e^{-x^2} = x^2 \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {(-x)^{2n}}{n!} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n+2}}{n!}## ⇒ ##\int_0^{1/2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n+2}}{n!}\, dx = \left. \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n+3}}{(2n+3)n!} \right|_0^{1/2}##

Could I use the ratio test to approximate the error or do I have to use the alternating series test? I don't really see how I could use the alternating series test from here.
 
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Amrator said:

Homework Statement


Approximate the integral to 3 decimal place accuracy via power series.

##\int_0^{1/2} x^2 e^{-x^2}\, dx ##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


##x^2 e^{-x^2} = x^2 \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {(-x)^{2n}}{n!} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n+2}}{n!}## ⇒ ##\int_0^{1/2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n+2}}{n!}\, dx = \left. \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^{2n+3}}{(2n+3)n!} \right|_0^{1/2}##

Could I use the ratio test to approximate the error or do I have to use the alternating series test? I don't really see how I could use the alternating series test from here.
You messed up the algebra, which is why you don't end up with an alternating series.
 
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I'll go over it again.
 
I don't see any algebraic mistakes. ##(-x)^{2n} = ((-x)^{2})^n = (x^2)^n = x^{2n}##
##x^2x^{2n} = x^{2n+2}##

Edit: Nevermind. I see the algebraic mistake.
 
How do you justify the inversion of ##\int## and ##\sum##?
 
geoffrey159 said:
How do you justify the inversion of ##\int## and ##\sum##?
What do you mean by inversion?
 
You exchanged ##\int## and ##\sum## in your first post, didn't you ? What is your justification for this ?
 
geoffrey159 said:
You exchanged ##\int## and ##\sum## in your first post, didn't you ? What is your justification for this ?
##e^x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {x^n}{n!}##
Let ##x = -x^2##
Multiply the series by ##x^2##, and simply integrate.
 
There is nothing simple about that, you have to prove it
 
  • #10
You want me to prove the term by term integration theorem?
 
  • #11
It's enough if you show that you have all the hypothesis that lead to your conclusion
 
  • #12
geoffrey159 said:
How do you justify the inversion of ##\int## and ##\sum##?

Power series can always be integrated term-by-term within their radius of convergence because convergence of power series is uniform.

(Also the question itself appears to assume that one can do that, so the OP doesn't need to justify it as part of the answer.)
 
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  • #13
I agree, but it must be said somewhere, or proved
 
  • #14
geoffrey159 said:
I agree, but it must be said somewhere, or proved
I'm in calculus 2, not analysis.
 
  • #15
pasmith said:
Power series can always be integrated term-by-term within their radius of convergence because convergence of power series is uniform.

(Also the question itself appears to assume that one can do that, so the OP doesn't need to justify it as part of the answer.)

geoffrey159 said:
I agree, but it must be said somewhere, or proved
I agree with what pasmith said -- the OP doesn't need to justify interchanging the summation and integration operations.
 
  • #16
Ok, it's fine for me :-)

@pasmith, convergence of the power serie is uniform on a compact set within the radius of convergence.
 

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