Arctan absolute value problem, calculus 1

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the inequality |arctan(x) - arctan(y)| ≤ |x - y| using the Mean Value Theorem. Participants explore various cases, including when x and y are in the same quadrant, different quadrants, or equal to zero. The conclusion emphasizes the importance of the derivative of arctan(x), which is bounded by 1, to establish the desired inequality. The proof is validated by considering the continuity and differentiability of arctan(x) across all real numbers.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Mean Value Theorem in calculus
  • Knowledge of the arctan function and its properties
  • Familiarity with absolute value inequalities
  • Basic skills in calculus, particularly derivatives
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Mean Value Theorem in detail, focusing on its applications
  • Explore the properties of the arctan function, including its limits and asymptotic behavior
  • Practice proving inequalities involving absolute values in calculus
  • Review continuity and differentiability concepts in real analysis
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in calculus, particularly those focused on real analysis and inequality proofs, as well as anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of the arctan function and its applications in mathematical proofs.

timon
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Homework Statement


prove

|arctan(x)-arctan(y)| \leq |x-y|

The Attempt at a Solution


I tried separating cases:
1. both x and y are in the same quadrant;
2. x and y are not in the same quadrant;
3. x and y are zero (trivial);
4. either x or y is zero.

Now, i can see why each of these is true from drawing arctan (the asymptotic behavior and |arctan(x)| =< |x| being important), but I'm having trouble producing a mathematical argument.. I tried doing something with the derivative but i just get confused. Also, proving the equality |arctan(x)| =< |x| is the _next_ question, so i doubt I'm supposed to use it here.
 
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Try applying the Mean Value Theorem to arctan(x).
 
i can get arctan(x) - arctan(y) \leq x-y, but how do i get that to say something about the absolute value?
 
is this correct?
x-y &gt; 0 \Rightarrow x - y = |x-y|, arctan(x)-arctan(y) = |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|
\Rightarrow |x-y| \geq |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|

x-y &lt; 0 \Rightarrow x - y = -|x-y|, arctan(x)-arctan(y) = -|arctan(x)-arctan(y)|
\Rightarrow -|x-y| \geq -|arctan(x)-arctan(y)| \rightarrow |x-y| \geq |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|

x-y=0 \Rightarrow x=y=0
 
Last edited:
timon said:
is this correct?
x-y &gt; 0 \Rightarrow x - y = |x-y|, arctan(x)-arctan(y) = |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|
\Rightarrow |x-y| \geq |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|
True, but how do you know |x-y| \geq |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|? You have to justify it.

x-y &lt; 0 \Rightarrow x - y = -|x-y|, arctan(x)-arctan(y) = -|arctan(x)-arctan(y)|
\Rightarrow -|x-y| \geq -|arctan(x)-arctan(y)| \rightarrow |x-y| \geq |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|
The step
\Rightarrow -|x-y| \geq -|arctan(x)-arctan(y)| \rightarrow |x-y| \geq |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|
is wrong.

x-y=0 \Rightarrow x=y=0
No, you can't conclude x=y=0.

Have you considered the original suggestion? What does the Mean Value Theorem tell you about arctan(x)? (I'm assuming you have studied the theorem.)

You have the right idea about breaking the proof into three cases, though: consider x > y, x < y, and x = y.
 
awkward said:
True, but how do you know |x-y| \geq |arctan(x)-arctan(y)|? You have to justify it.
i used the mean value theorem, as you suggested:

if

f(x) = arctan(x)

then

\exists c

such that

f(c)&#039; = \frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}

\Leftrightarrow f(c)&#039;(y-x)=f(y)-f(x)

for any x, y \in \Re where x < y, since arctan is continuous and differentiable everywhere. also,

f(x)&#039;= \frac{d}{dx}[arctan(x)] = \frac{1}{1+x^2} \leq 1

thus

y-x \geq arctan(y)-arctan(x).

the same process for x > y gives

x-y \geq arctan(x)-arctan(y).

I think this should give me the wanted result, using the method i used for the first case in my previous post, and realizing |x-y| = |y-x|. I think i didn't split the cases soon enough when i did it before. I find all this splitting of cases rather confusing..
awkward said:
No, you can't conclude x=y=0.
Why not? could there be any other place where x=y?
 
Last edited:
You are OK up to the point x=y=0.

Can you think of a number other than 0?
 
o wait i see what I've been doing. x and y are both on the x axis, so x=y doesn't imply x=y=0, in fact x and y could be any real number.
but the equality is still true, and trivially so. I guess I'm done? if so, thanks a lot for the assistance!
 
Last edited:
Right!
 

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