Are all continuous bijections homeomorphisms?

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The discussion centers on the question of whether a continuous bijection between metric spaces guarantees the continuity of its inverse. It is established that a continuous bijection does not necessarily imply that the inverse is continuous, as demonstrated by the example of the function f: [0,1) -> S^1 defined by t ↦ exp(2πit), which is continuous and bijective but has a discontinuous inverse. The conclusion drawn is that for a continuous bijection to be a homeomorphism, additional conditions such as compactness and Hausdorff properties must be satisfied.

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If f is a continuous bijection from a metric space M to a metric space N, is the inverse function of f necessarily continuous?

My intuition tells me no; it seems like there could be a continuous bijection f whose inverse exists but is not continuous. Intuitively, I see two spaces being homeomorphic as a stronger condition than the existence of a continuous bijection between them.

I tried proving that the inverse of f must be continuous, but I couldn't.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you in advance.
 
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No, take f : R discrete -> R Euclidean which maps x -> x, then f is obviously bijective, and it's continuous because every set is open in the domain, but for the inverse function, the pre-image of a singleton set is a singleton set which is not open in the euclidean topology.
 
The standard counter-example is the map [0,1)->S^1 given by t\mapsto \exp(2\pi i t).
 
You might like to prove the following: let X be compact and Y Hausdorff, then if f:X\rightarrow Y is bijective and continuous, then it is a homeomorphism.
 
Landau said:
The standard counter-example is the map [0,1)->S^1 given by t\mapsto \exp(2\pi i t).
Is that a bijection? Isn't this function periodic, and hence not one-to-one?
 
Instead of asking, try to prove it yourself. To prove that it would not be injective, you need to find distinct t_1 and t_2 in [0,1) such that f(t_1)=f(t_2) (if I call the function f). Can you find them?
 
Landau said:
Instead of asking, try to prove it yourself. To prove that it would not be injective, you need to find distinct t_1 and t_2 in [0,1) such that f(t_1)=f(t_2) (if I call the function f). Can you find them?
f(0)=1, f(1)=1
 
With [0,1) I meant the interval EXcluding 1, i.e.

[0,1):=\{x\in\mathbb{R}: 0\leq x<1\}.
 
Landau said:
With [0,1) I meant the interval EXcluding 1, i.e.

[0,1):=\{x\in\mathbb{R}: 0\leq x<1\}.
Oh sorry, I didn't notice you had restricted the domain.
 
  • #10
Well, that is the point of this example: the inverse of this map sends the point 1 (of the complex unit circle S^1) to 0, and and the point just 'below' 1 to 1-e for small e. In other words, the inverse 'jumps' from values arbitrarily close to 1, to 0. Hence is not continuous.
 
  • #11
there are several standard examples where bijective morphisms are isomorphisms: vector spaces, banach spaces, compact hausdorff spaces, groups, rings, normal algebraic varieties.

These give rise to some examples of bijective maps which may not be isomorphisms: singular algebraic curves, and arbitrary topological spaces.
 
  • #12
mathwonk said:
there are several standard examples where bijective morphisms are isomorphisms: vector spaces, banach spaces, compact hausdorff spaces, groups, rings, normal algebraic varieties.

These give rise to some examples of bijective maps which may not be isomorphisms: singular algebraic curves, and arbitrary topological spaces.
I don't really understand what you're saying, although I gather it has something to do with category theory. Anyway, does what you said lead to additional examples of continuous bijections between metric spaces whose inverses are not continuous?
 

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