Are the Red Terms Equal to Zero in This Cross Product Problem?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between angular momentum and torque, specifically examining the conditions under which certain terms in a cross product are considered equal to zero. Participants are analyzing the implications of vector relationships in the context of particle motion and forces.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the conditions under which specific terms in the equations can be set to zero, particularly focusing on the parallelism of vectors involved in the cross product. There is a back-and-forth regarding the implications of particle acceleration being parallel to the position vector.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants actively questioning assumptions and clarifying concepts. Some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of vector relationships, but no consensus has been reached on the specific conditions being debated.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be confusion regarding the parallelism of vectors and the implications for angular momentum versus linear momentum. Participants are also addressing potential errors in their understanding and the representation of the problem.

sparkle123
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Background: we're trying to show that the rate of change of angular momentum of an object about its center of mass (position given by R) is equal to the total torque about R.

Why are the terms in red equal to 0? If anything, shouldn't the terms circled in in blue be equal to zero since the vectors R and ai are parallel and ri` and ai` are parallel?

Thank you!
 

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What would it mean if, as you say, the acceleration of each individual particle were parallel to \vec R?
 
Last edited:
Then there is no angular momentum and only linear momentum?

EDIT: actually i made an error with my question. the new image is attached.
If ri` and ai` are parallel, shouldn't the cross-product be 0? So in the last line, the Ʃ miri` × A would be left instead?
 

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sparkle123 said:
Then there is no angular momentum and only linear momentum?
No. Reexamine your assumption.

EDIT: actually i made an error with my question. the new image is attached.
If ri` and ai` are parallel, shouldn't the cross-product be 0?
Why do you think they are parallel?
 
tms said:
No. Reexamine your assumption.Why do you think they are parallel?

Isn't a the double derivative of r (so they are parallel)?
Thanks again!
 
^bump
 
That doesn't mean they must be parallel. If it did, it would mean that you could change the forces on an object just by moving the origin of the coordinate system.
 

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