Are two integers coprime if they are coprime mod(n)?

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SUMMARY

In the discussion, it is established that within any set of ten consecutive integers, at least one integer is coprime to all others. The lemma states that among n consecutive integers, exactly one is divisible by n. The example provided illustrates that the integer 7 is coprime to the integers 1 through 10, and it possesses a multiplicative inverse of 3 in the integers modulo 10, confirming its coprimality within ℤ10.

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Homework Statement


Show that out of a set of ten consecutive integers, at least one is coprime to all of the others.

Homework Equations


Lemma: Out of a set of n consecutive integers, exactly one is divisible by n. (Given).

The Attempt at a Solution


Let a1, a2...a10 be consecutive integers. Let a11(mod10), a2≡ 2(mod10)...a100(mod10).

Observe that 7 is coprime to the other integers from 1 to 10. Does this mean that 7(mod10) is coprime to the other integers in ℤ10, and if so, does this mean that a7 is coprime to the other ai?

Also, sorry that I've been throwing so many questions on here in the last few weeks. Thank you all for being so patient :)
 
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Never mind, 7 has a multiplicative inverse, 3, in the integers modulo 10, so it can divide the other elements.
 

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