- #1
i_m_sadiq
- 4
- 0
Hlw.....I am a new guy here.....And I am taking a course of Applied Mechanics in my freshmen year....Here I have come across a term called Area of moment of inertia which I don't really understand that much........And I have been given to prove that
[tex]
I_d = \frac{\pi a^4}{4}
[/tex]......I was trying everything but I am at my wit's end.......So, if some helps me it would be great.......A thanks in advance for the help....
[tex]
I_d = \frac{\pi a^4}{4}
[/tex]......I was trying everything but I am at my wit's end.......So, if some helps me it would be great.......A thanks in advance for the help....