Attenuation and Phase constant values in wave equation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the wave equation and the derivation of attenuation (alpha) and phase (beta) constants in a lossless medium, where the conductivity (sigma) is zero. The equation presented is analyzed, leading to the conclusion that alpha should equal zero when sigma is zero, despite an initial calculation suggesting otherwise. Participants point out discrepancies in the formulation of the wave equation, specifically regarding the presence of a factor of j and the squared term for omega. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly applying standard textbook definitions to ensure accurate results in wave propagation analysis. Overall, clarity in the wave equation formulation is crucial for deriving the correct values of alpha and beta.
baby_1
Messages
159
Reaction score
16
Homework Statement
Attenuation and Phase constant values in wave equation
Relevant Equations
wave equation
Regarding wave equation we are faced with this form
$$\nabla^2 \vec{E}=j\omega \mu \sigma \vec{E}-j\omega \mu\varepsilon \vec{E}=\gamma ^2\vec{E}$$
where
$$\gamma ^2=j\omega \mu \sigma -j\omega \mu\varepsilon $$
$$\gamma =\alpha +j\beta $$
where alpha and beta are attenuation and phase constants respectively. If we have a lossless media(where sigma =0), I need to obtain alpha and beta values:
My attempt:
$$\gamma ^2 =-j\omega \mu\varepsilon =>\gamma ^2=\omega \mu\varepsilon e^{\frac{-j\pi }{2}}=>\gamma=\sqrt{\omega \mu\varepsilon} e^{\frac{-j\pi }{4}}=>\gamma=\sqrt{\omega \mu\varepsilon}(C os(\frac{\pi }{4})+jSin(\frac{\pi }{4}))=>\alpha =\beta => \alpha \neq 0 $$

it means we have a loss value in the equation, However, if we set alpha=0 in the gamma variable all equations are correct. I need to prove alpha is equal to zero when sigma =0.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
baby_1 said:
Regarding wave equation we are faced with this form
$$\nabla^2 \vec{E}=j\omega \mu \sigma \vec{E}-j\omega \mu\varepsilon \vec{E}$$

Are you sure that you wrote this correctly? I checked a couple of standard textbooks which write the second term on the right as ##-\omega^2 \mu \varepsilon \vec E## (no factor of ##j## and ##\omega## is squared).
 
  • Like
Likes baby_1 and Delta2
Yes i agree with @TSny, that term comes from $$\mu\epsilon\frac{\partial^2 \vec{E}(r,t)}{\partial t^2}$$ and assuming harmonic time dependence that is $$\vec{E}(r,t)=\vec{E}(r)e^{-j\omega t}$$ we get that it is equal to $$j^2\omega^2\mu\epsilon\vec{E}(r)e^{-j\omega t}$$
 
  • Like
Likes baby_1 and TSny
Thread 'Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof'
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.) I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of...
Back
Top