Attenuation and Phase constant values in wave equation

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The discussion focuses on the wave equation and the derivation of attenuation (alpha) and phase (beta) constants in a lossless medium, where the conductivity (sigma) is zero. The equation presented is analyzed, leading to the conclusion that alpha should equal zero when sigma is zero, despite an initial calculation suggesting otherwise. Participants point out discrepancies in the formulation of the wave equation, specifically regarding the presence of a factor of j and the squared term for omega. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly applying standard textbook definitions to ensure accurate results in wave propagation analysis. Overall, clarity in the wave equation formulation is crucial for deriving the correct values of alpha and beta.
baby_1
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Homework Statement
Attenuation and Phase constant values in wave equation
Relevant Equations
wave equation
Regarding wave equation we are faced with this form
$$\nabla^2 \vec{E}=j\omega \mu \sigma \vec{E}-j\omega \mu\varepsilon \vec{E}=\gamma ^2\vec{E}$$
where
$$\gamma ^2=j\omega \mu \sigma -j\omega \mu\varepsilon $$
$$\gamma =\alpha +j\beta $$
where alpha and beta are attenuation and phase constants respectively. If we have a lossless media(where sigma =0), I need to obtain alpha and beta values:
My attempt:
$$\gamma ^2 =-j\omega \mu\varepsilon =>\gamma ^2=\omega \mu\varepsilon e^{\frac{-j\pi }{2}}=>\gamma=\sqrt{\omega \mu\varepsilon} e^{\frac{-j\pi }{4}}=>\gamma=\sqrt{\omega \mu\varepsilon}(C os(\frac{\pi }{4})+jSin(\frac{\pi }{4}))=>\alpha =\beta => \alpha \neq 0 $$

it means we have a loss value in the equation, However, if we set alpha=0 in the gamma variable all equations are correct. I need to prove alpha is equal to zero when sigma =0.
 
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baby_1 said:
Regarding wave equation we are faced with this form
$$\nabla^2 \vec{E}=j\omega \mu \sigma \vec{E}-j\omega \mu\varepsilon \vec{E}$$

Are you sure that you wrote this correctly? I checked a couple of standard textbooks which write the second term on the right as ##-\omega^2 \mu \varepsilon \vec E## (no factor of ##j## and ##\omega## is squared).
 
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Yes i agree with @TSny, that term comes from $$\mu\epsilon\frac{\partial^2 \vec{E}(r,t)}{\partial t^2}$$ and assuming harmonic time dependence that is $$\vec{E}(r,t)=\vec{E}(r)e^{-j\omega t}$$ we get that it is equal to $$j^2\omega^2\mu\epsilon\vec{E}(r)e^{-j\omega t}$$
 
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So is there some elegant way to do this or am I just supposed to follow my nose and sub the Taylor expansions for terms in the two boost matrices under the assumption ##v,w\ll 1##, then do three ugly matrix multiplications and get some horrifying kludge for ##R## and show that the product of ##R## and its transpose is the identity matrix with det(R)=1? Without loss of generality I made ##\mathbf{v}## point along the x-axis and since ##\mathbf{v}\cdot\mathbf{w} = 0## I set ##w_1 = 0## to...

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