Average momentum squared of Psi(100) of hydrogen atom

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the average momentum squared, , for the wave function ψ100 of the hydrogen atom. The wave function is defined as ψ100 = 1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0. The user initially encounters an issue where the integral calculation yields a result of zero, suggesting an error in applying the Laplace operator in spherical coordinates. After correcting the omission of the 1/r^2 term in the operator, the user successfully recalculates , obtaining a meaningful result.

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Homework Statement



Calculate <p2> for ψ100 of the hydrogen atom

Homework Equations



ψ100 = 1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0

0 r n e-B rdr = n!/Bn+1

p2 = -hbar ∇2 = -hbar2 (r2 d2/dr2 +2 r d/dr) (ψ does not depend on ø or θ)

The Attempt at a Solution

<p2> = ∫ψ*(p2ψ)dV
∫dV = 4pi0r2dr

<p2> = ∫1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0 (-hbar2 (r2 d2/dr2 +2 r d/dr) 1/(√pi) (1/a0)3/2 e-r/a0)dV

<p2> = -4 hbar2/ a03 ∫r2 e-r/a0 ( (r/a0)2 - 2r/a0 ) e-r/a0 dr

<p2> = -4 hbar2/ a03 ∫e-2r/a0 ( r4/a02 - 2r3/a0 ) drThe problem that I am running into is that I am calculating the integral to be 0:

B= 2/a0 n1= 4 n2=3

∫e-2r/a0 ( r4/a02 - 2r3/a0 ) dr = (4!/ (a02 (2/a0)5) - (2*3!/ (a0 (2/a0)4 = (24a03/32 - 12a03/16) =0

Am I doing something wrong, because I don't think <p2> would be 0 (that would indicate that the momentum is always 0)?
 
Last edited:
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Simon Bridge said:
First thing I noticed:

Going by the laplace operator in spherical-polar coordinates:
re: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laplace_operator#Three_dimensions $$\nabla^2\psi(r)=\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}r^2 \frac{\partial}{\partial r}\psi(r)$$

Thank you. I left out the 1/r^2 in the laplace operator. When I redid the problem after fixing the operator, the answer I am now getting makes sense.
 
Easy to do - there are so many examples where you don't need it.
 

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