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**1. Homework Statement**

Ok, maybe I'm slow at grasping this, but why is the potential energy U of an electron while it is tunneling through a 1 dimensional potential barrier of height V0 = V0?

**2. Homework Equations**

Schrodinger equation in 1D (using semiclassical approximation)

**3. The Attempt at a Solution**

I'm assuming that the wave number [tex]k = \frac{\sqrt{2m(E-V_{0})}}{\hbar}[/tex] implies that U = V0 where U is the potential energy expression in the schrodinger equation.