Basic invertible matrix theorem proof.

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If A and B are invertible matrices, the theorem states that (AB)^(-1) = B^(-1)*A^(-1). This can be proven by showing that (AB)(B^(-1)*A^(-1)) equals the identity matrix I, confirming that B^(-1)*A^(-1) is indeed the inverse of AB. The proof involves using the properties of matrix multiplication and the definitions of invertible matrices. Additionally, a similar concept applies in group theory, where the product of isomorphic groups also maintains isomorphism. The discussion emphasizes the fundamental relationships in both matrix algebra and group theory.
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If A and B are invertible matrices, can anyone prove that

(AB)^(-1) = B^(-1)*A^(-1) ?

This is not exactly the problem, I have, but my group theory problem is isomorphic to it :).
 
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With that expression for (AB)^{-1}, does the following hold?

(AB)^{-1}(AB)=1
 


Yes, the basic invertible matrix theorem states that if A and B are invertible matrices, then the product AB is also invertible and its inverse is equal to the product of the inverses of A and B, i.e. (AB)^(-1) = B^(-1)*A^(-1). This can be proven using the definition of an inverse matrix and some basic properties of matrix multiplication.

Proof:

Let A and B be invertible matrices. This means that there exist matrices C and D such that AC = CA = I and BD = DB = I. We want to show that (AB)^(-1) = B^(-1)*A^(-1).

First, note that (AB)(B^(-1)*A^(-1)) = A(BB^(-1))A^(-1) = AIA^(-1) = AA^(-1) = I. Similarly, (B^(-1)*A^(-1))(AB) = B^(-1)(AA^(-1))B = B^(-1)IB = B^(-1)B = I.

Therefore, (B^(-1)*A^(-1)) is the inverse of AB, which means that (AB)^(-1) = B^(-1)*A^(-1). This completes the proof.

In group theory, a similar concept can be applied. If G and H are isomorphic groups, then the product GH is also isomorphic to the product of the isomorphic groups H and G. This can be proven using the definition of isomorphism and some basic properties of group multiplication.

Proof:

Let G and H be isomorphic groups. This means that there exists an isomorphism f: G → H. We want to show that GH is isomorphic to HG.

First, note that for any g1, g2 ∈ G, f(g1g2) = f(g1)f(g2) (since f is an isomorphism). Similarly, for any h1, h2 ∈ H, f(h1h2) = f(h1)f(h2).

Therefore, for any gh ∈ GH, we have f(gh) = f(g)f(h) ∈ HG. Similarly, for any hg ∈ HG, we have f(hg) = f(h)f(g) ∈ GH.

This shows that the map f': GH → HG defined by f'(gh) = f
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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