Basic Question about Time Dependent Wave Functions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on time-dependent wave functions in the context of the infinite square well potential. The normalized eigenfunction is defined as φn(x) = √(2/L)sin(nπx/L) for n=1,2,3,... The initial wave function is expressed as a linear combination of the first two eigenstates, &psi(0) = cos(a)φ1(x) + sin(a)φ2(x). The time evolution of the wave function incorporates different energy levels for each eigenstate, leading to the conclusion that the wave function at time t is given by &psi(t) = (cos(a)φ1(x))exp(iE1t/ħ) + (sin(a)φ2(x))exp(iE2t/ħ), where E1 and E2 are the respective energies for the states.

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atomicpedals
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The situation I have in my problem is the standard infinite square well from 0 to L. The normalized eigenfunction is

[itex]\phi[/itex]n(x) = [itex]\sqrt{2/L}[/itex]sin(n[itex]\pi[/itex]x/L) for n=1,2,3,...

if my wave function at time t=0 is then

cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x)+sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x)

is my wave function at more general time t something like

(cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex])+(sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex]) ?
 
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Yes, it's something like that, but the E's for the two terms are different.
 
Right, E is dependent on n.
 

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