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Basic Question about Time Dependent Wave Functions

  1. Sep 4, 2011 #1
    The situation I have in my problem is the standard infinite square well from 0 to L. The normalized eigenfunction is

    [itex]\phi[/itex]n(x) = [itex]\sqrt{2/L}[/itex]sin(n[itex]\pi[/itex]x/L) for n=1,2,3,...

    if my wave function at time t=0 is then

    cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x)+sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x)

    is my wave function at more general time t something like

    (cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex])+(sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex]) ?
     
    Last edited: Sep 4, 2011
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 4, 2011 #2

    vela

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    Yes, it's something like that, but the E's for the two terms are different.
     
  4. Sep 5, 2011 #3
    Right, E is dependent on n.
     
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