atomicpedals
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The situation I have in my problem is the standard infinite square well from 0 to L. The normalized eigenfunction is
[itex]\phi[/itex]n(x) = [itex]\sqrt{2/L}[/itex]sin(n[itex]\pi[/itex]x/L) for n=1,2,3,...
if my wave function at time t=0 is then
cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x)+sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x)
is my wave function at more general time t something like
(cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex])+(sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex]) ?
[itex]\phi[/itex]n(x) = [itex]\sqrt{2/L}[/itex]sin(n[itex]\pi[/itex]x/L) for n=1,2,3,...
if my wave function at time t=0 is then
cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x)+sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x)
is my wave function at more general time t something like
(cos(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]1(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex])+(sin(a)[itex]\phi[/itex]2(x))*exp(iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex]) ?
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