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I've been trying to understand the theory to descibe the delta(1232) resonance but I'm stuck... hope you guys could help me. After reading several papers, the following questions arose:

1. How do I get (mathematically) the spinor respresentation (1/2,0)+(1,1/2)+(0,1/2)+(1/2,1)

from the product of a vector and a spin-1/2 spinor?

Why don't we use the (3/2, 0)-representation (I think this was alreay asked)?

2. Problem with the lower spin components (s-1), (s-2), etc. corresponding to the (1/2,0)+(0,1/2) in the upper representation:

How do I "see" them in the RS-Lagrangian?

Is this problem exisiting in a Spin-1-theory: do Spin-0 d.o.f.s arise there?

3. We remove the Spin 1/2 contributions by the constrain: γ_{μ}ψ^{μ}=0, where γ are the gamma matrices and ψ is the RS-field. What does this mean?

4. Why the consistent(physical) vertex has to satisfy p_{μ}[itex]\Gamma[/itex]^{[itex]\mu[/itex]}=0, with p_{μ}being the 4-momentum?

These questions remain unanswered to me.

Thanks for reply!

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# Basic questions about Spin3/2 formalism

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