Basis Transformation for Wave Function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the transformation of a wave function during a change of coordinate basis from Cartesian to spherical coordinates, specifically focusing on the effects of a rotation about the z-axis. The original poster references equations from Sakurai's Modern Quantum Mechanics and seeks clarification on the mathematical steps involved in this transformation.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand how the wave function transforms under rotation and expresses uncertainty about the mathematical demonstration of this process. Some participants discuss the application of the rotation operator and its implications for the wave function's components.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the mathematical implications of the rotation operator on the wave function and discussing the actions of the angular momentum operator L_z on different variables. There is an ongoing inquiry into the behavior of L_z with respect to the spherical coordinates, indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants are examining the specific equations from the textbook and questioning the assumptions regarding the behavior of operators in the context of coordinate transformations. The discussion reflects a focus on the nuances of quantum mechanics without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Proofrific
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Homework Statement



It's not a homework problem. I'm reading my textbook (Sakurai's Modern QM), and I'm not sure about a step (eq 3.6.6 through 3.6.8). Here it is:

We start with a wave function that's been rotated:
[tex]\langle x' + y' \delta \phi, y' - x' \delta \phi, z' | \alpha \rangle[/tex]

Now, we change the coordinate basis from Cartesian to spherical. That is,
[tex]\langle x', y', z' | \alpha \rangle \to \langle r, \theta, \phi | \alpha \rangle[/tex]

I want to show that the previous wave function transforms to:
[tex]\langle r, \theta, \phi - \delta \phi | \alpha \rangle[/tex]

Homework Equations



See above.

The Attempt at a Solution



Physically, I understand that we're rotating by angle [tex]\delta \phi[/tex] about the z-axis. So, it makes sense that the bra would acquire a [tex]-\delta \phi[/tex] (the ket would acquire a positive). But, I'm not sure how to mathematically show the steps (which is needed for more complicated transforms, such as Sakurai eq. 3.6.10 to 3.6.11).
 
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You are essentially acting the rotation operator, [itex]\mathcal{D}[/itex], on the bra in the spherical wavefunction:

[tex] \langle r,\theta,\phi|\mathcal{D}|\alpha\rangle=\langle r,\theta,\phi\left|1-i\left(\frac{\delta\phi}{\hbar}\right)L_z\right|\alpha\rangle=\langle r,\theta,\phi-\delta\phi|\alpha\rangle[/tex]

Mathematically, you are multiplying each term in [itex]\langle r,\theta,\phi|[/itex] by [itex]\mathcal{D}[/itex], but since [itex]L_zr=L_z\theta=0[/itex], you are left with

[tex] \langle r,\theta,\phi|\mathcal{D}=\langle r\mathcal{D},\theta\mathcal{D},\phi\mathcal{D}|\rightarrow\left.\langle r,\theta,\phi\left(1-i\left(\frac{\delta\phi}{\hbar}\right)L_z\right)\right|=\langle r,\theta,\phi-\delta\phi|[/tex]

Equations (3.6.10) and (3.6.11) use the "known result from wave mechanics" in Equation (3.6.9):

[tex] \langle\mathbf{x}'|L_z|\alpha\rangle=-i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial\phi}\langle\mathbf{x}'|\alpha\rangle[/tex]

and this is not the same as the second equation above because you do not have the [itex]\propto(1-\delta\phi L_z)[/itex] acting on the bra, you just have [itex]L_x[/itex], [itex]L_y[/itex], or [itex]L_z[/itex]. Converting [itex]L_x[/itex] and [itex]L_y[/itex] from Cartesian into spherical should give you Equations (3.6.10) and (3.6.11) when using the "known result" of Equation (3.6.9)
 
jdwood983 said:
Mathematically, you are multiplying each term in [itex]\langle r,\theta,\phi|[/itex] by [itex]\mathcal{D}[/itex], but since [itex]L_zr=L_z\theta=0[/itex], you are left with

Thanks for the help!

How do you know that [itex]L_zr=L_z\theta=0[/itex]? The only thing I remember about [itex]L_z[/itex] is how it acts on an eigenstate: [itex]L_z|l,m\rangle = m \hbar | l,m \rangle[/itex]. How do you know how it acts on [itex]r[/itex], [itex]\theta[/itex], and [itex]\phi[/itex]?
 
Proofrific said:
Thanks for the help!

How do you know that [itex]L_zr=L_z\theta=0[/itex]? The only thing I remember about [itex]L_z[/itex] is how it acts on an eigenstate: [itex]L_z|l,m\rangle = m \hbar | l,m \rangle[/itex]. How do you know how it acts on [itex]r[/itex], [itex]\theta[/itex], and [itex]\phi[/itex]?

Well [itex]L_z[/itex] is an operator equivalent to

[tex] L_z=-i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial\phi}[/tex]

So since [itex]r[/itex] and [itex]\theta[/itex] have no [itex]\phi[/itex] component, [itex]L_z[/itex] acting on them would be zero.
 

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