Bell's Inequality Explanation for Intelligent Non-Scientist

In summary: However, if you look at the correlations between the particles' spin angles, you find that the correlations are always the same, no matter what has happened to either particle since the split. This is because the particles are still exchanging information about their spin angles, even though they are separated.This is the basis of the Bell's Theorem.4. Can someone explain this, specifically amplitudes "So, cancellation between positive and negative amplitudes can be seen as the source of all quantum weirdness - the one thing that makes quantum mechanics different from classical probability theory"?Our own DrChinese maintains a <understatement>pretty decent</understatement> web page on Bell's Theorem:
  • #36
johana said:
[itex]A(a,\lambda_A) = cos^2(a), S[/itex]={+1,-1}

It's a probability function with sample space +1 and -1. What's the problem? Is there anything else I need to do with the notation to make that more clear?

Johana, maybe this will help: can you tell us exactly what ##cos^2(a)## is supposed to represent? In other words, describe the experiment which produces such a result.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #37
billschnieder said:
Johana, maybe this will help: can you tell us exactly what ##cos^2(a)## is supposed to represent? In other words, describe the experiment which produces such a result.

It's your friendly neighborhood Malus' law. Send 10,000 0° polarized photons (as DrChinese already pointed out) through 60° polarizer A, 25% will go "+" way and 75% "-" way. Then send 10,000 0° polarized photons through 30° polarizer B, 75% will go "+" way and 25% "-" way. Ok? The point is, how else could you possibly get random +/- output as such unless hidden variable was actually a probability function just like that?
 
  • #38
But this is not what ##A(a,\lambda_A)## means in Bell's formula. It means the result for a single photon with hidden variable ##\lambda_A## that passes through a polarizer set at angle ##a##. This single result must be ##+1## or ##-1##.

##A(a,\lambda_A)## does not mean the average value over 10,000 photons.
 
  • #39
johana said:
The point is, how else could you possibly get random +/- output as such unless hidden variable was actually a probability function just like that?

We produce random outputs from a completely deterministic system in which none of the hidden variables are probability functions all the time; throwing a six-sided die or tossing a coin are obvious examples. If we knew the exact initial conditions and had enough time to work the problem, we'd be able to explain the outcome using classical mechanics.

The point of Bell's theorem is that if such an explanation exists for the apparent randomness of quantum mechanical results, that explanation is necessarily non-local.

Here is a question for you (and it is not a rhetorical question):

Have you read and understood the EPR paper and Bell's paper? If you haven't read them, you're wasting your time and ours. If you have read them, and there are parts of the arguments that you don't follow, ask and we can have a more focused and productive discussion.
 
  • #40
Avodyne said:
But this is not what ##A(a,\lambda_A)## means in Bell's formula. It means the result for a single photon with hidden variable ##\lambda_A## that passes through a polarizer set at angle ##a##. This single result must be ##+1## or ##-1##.

##A(a,\lambda_A)## does not mean the average value over 10,000 photons.

Malus' law is a probability function with sample space S={+,-}. It means every single photon either goes "+" way or "-" way. Number of photons is arbitrary, average probability applies equally to each individually or all of them together.
 
  • #41
Nugatory said:
We produce random outputs from a completely deterministic system in which none of the hidden variables are probability functions all the time; throwing a six-sided die or tossing a coin are obvious examples. If we knew the exact initial conditions and had enough time to work the problem, we'd be able to explain the outcome using classical mechanics.

That's exactly what local hidden variable is supposed to achieve, to predict outcome based on initial conditions and classical mechanics, including classical probability, such as used for predicting six-sided dice roll or coin toss outcome.

We toss a coin 10,000 times and we get this kind of random sequence:

H H T H T T H T H T T H T H H H T T H T

...we send 10,000 unpolarized photons through a polarizer and we get the same kind of random sequence:

+ - - + - + + - + + - + - - + + + - + - -

Outcome of coin toss sequence can be defined with probability function. Is there any other type of function in classical physics, beside probability, which is able to define or represent such RANDOM outcome? I don't think so, and so I conclude: if local hidden variable exists it would have to be a probability function. That's all.
 
  • #42
Closed - this discussion is no longer adding any value.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • Quantum Physics
Replies
16
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
21
Views
4K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
25
Views
3K
  • Quantum Physics
2
Replies
47
Views
4K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
23
Views
3K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
22
Views
32K
Replies
38
Views
6K
Replies
82
Views
8K
Back
Top