Bells' Inequality Spin Violations

In summary: Bells' equality'. But that's not what the paper says at all- it only claims that a theory satisfying Einstein locality and reality in the Einstein-Bell sense (and so preserving the conservation law) can't be constructed without also satisfying Bells' inequality.
  • #1
morrobay
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When entangled photons are generated from a cascade of a Calciums' 6s level
this inequality : n[y+z-] + n[x-y+] ≥ n[x-z-] is derived for what is equivalent to spin in photons.
When the detectors at A and B are parallel the perfect anti correlations are due to conservation
laws of angular momentum - a total spin of zero.
When the inequality is dis proven with non parallel detector settings what happened to
the conservation law ?
Regarding Bells' inequality with electrons: When a sample is measured for 45° , 1/2 are found
to be spin up. When a sample is measured for 90° , 1/2 are spin down. But when the sample that
was measured for spin up at 45° is measured at 90° , only 15% are spin up.
How can the possibility that the magnetic field in the detector alters electron spin be distinguished from QM forbidding knowledge of mutually non commuting observables when the inequality is
dis proven ?
 
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  • #2
This paper:www.arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0407041 Correlation Function, Bells inequality and
fundamental conservation laws. Bells inequality and a theory that satisfies the fundamental conservation law violates the inequality.
Therefore - a theory of correlations satisfying Einstein locality, reality in the Einstein - Bell sense
and the validity of the fundamental conservation laws cannot be constructed.
 
  • #3
morrobay said:
When entangled photons are generated from a cascade of a Calciums' 6s level
this inequality : n[y+z-] + n[x-y+] ≥ n[x-z-] is derived for what is equivalent to spin in photons.
When the detectors at A and B are parallel the perfect anti correlations are due to conservation
laws of angular momentum - a total spin of zero.
When the inequality is dis proven with non parallel detector settings what happened to
the conservation law ?
Regarding Bells' inequality with electrons: When a sample is measured for 45° , 1/2 are found
to be spin up. When a sample is measured for 90° , 1/2 are spin down. But when the sample that
was measured for spin up at 45° is measured at 90° , only 15% are spin up.

How can the possibility that the magnetic field in the detector alters electron spin be distinguished from QM forbidding knowledge of mutually non commuting observables when the inequality is
dis proven ? [..]

This paper:www.arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0407041 Correlation Function, Bells inequality and
fundamental conservation laws. Bells inequality and a theory that satisfies the fundamental conservation law violates the inequality. [..]
Very interesting paper!

If I understand you correctly, you ask why it is assumed that although the detector clearly interacts with the electron when it passes through, it can only act on (and not interact with) the electron spin. Indeed, that article (which was apparently reviewed) seems to ignore that in my eyes necessary option completely - it handles the measurement interaction as a "projection"!

Can anyone clarify that issue?
 
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  • #4
harrylin said:
Very interesting paper!

If I understand you correctly, you ask why it is assumed that although the detector clearly interacts with the electron when it passes through, it can only act on (and not interact with) the electron spin. Indeed, that article (which was apparently reviewed) seems to ignore that in my eyes necessary option completely - it handles the measurement interaction as a "projection"!

Can anyone clarify that issue?

I think you're right. One could imagine that there is angular momentum transferred between the particle and the detector. In that case, looking at the spin of the particles alone would not be sufficient to account for all the angular momentum. So there would be no reason for particle spins to add up to zero after interacting with the detector. So I agree that the correlation doesn't follow from angular momentum conservation alone.
 
  • #5
stevendaryl said:
I think you're right. One could imagine that there is angular momentum transferred between the particle and the detector. In that case, looking at the spin of the particles alone would not be sufficient to account for all the angular momentum. So there would be no reason for particle spins to add up to zero after interacting with the detector. So I agree that the correlation doesn't follow from angular momentum conservation alone.

Actually, now I'm not sure. The interaction with the detector would mean that you don't have conservation of momentum for just the particles, but maybe when you take AVERAGES, the effect of the detectors should average to zero?
 
  • #6
stevendaryl said:
Actually, now I'm not sure. The interaction with the detector would mean that you don't have conservation of momentum for just the particles, but maybe when you take AVERAGES, the effect of the detectors should average to zero?
Maybe it should, according to classical theory. But that's I think another issue than the one that the paper addresses: Unnikrishnan claims in the summary that 'any theory of correlations of such discrete variables satisfying the fundamental conservation law of angular momentum violates the Bell’s inequalities'.
And more clearly in the body text:
'a physical system with discrete observable values can show correlations different from what
is predicted by quantum mechanics only by violating a fundamental conservation law!'.


In view of Morrobay's pertinent question, I don't see how that follows from that paper.
 

1. What is Bell's Inequality and how does it relate to spin violations?

Bell's Inequality is a mathematical proof that describes the limitations of local hidden variable theories in explaining the behavior of quantum particles. It states that certain correlations between the measurements of entangled particles cannot be explained by classical physics. Spin violations refer to the violation of this inequality, where the measurements of entangled particles show a stronger correlation than predicted by classical physics.

2. How was Bell's Inequality first tested and what were the results?

Bell's Inequality was first tested in a series of experiments by John Clauser, Stuart Freedman, and Abner Shimony in 1972. They used pairs of entangled photons and measured their polarizations, finding a violation of Bell's Inequality and providing evidence for the non-local nature of quantum mechanics.

3. Can Bell's Inequality be violated in other systems besides entangled particles?

Yes, Bell's Inequality has been violated in various quantum systems, including atoms, ions, and superconductors. This suggests that the violation is a fundamental feature of quantum mechanics rather than a specific property of entangled particles.

4. What are the implications of Bell's Inequality spin violations?

The violation of Bell's Inequality has significant implications for our understanding of the nature of reality. It supports the idea of non-locality in quantum mechanics, where particles can be connected even when separated by large distances. It also rules out the possibility of hidden variables that determine the behavior of particles, suggesting that quantum mechanics is a complete theory.

5. How is Bell's Inequality relevant to quantum computing and cryptography?

The violation of Bell's Inequality is essential for the functioning of quantum computers and secure quantum communication. By harnessing the non-local correlations between entangled particles, quantum computers can perform certain calculations much faster than classical computers. Similarly, the security of quantum cryptography relies on the non-locality of quantum particles, making it impossible for an eavesdropper to intercept information without being detected.

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