Hello, forum! I am puzzling my way through some interpretation. In the famous EPR paper, the authors ask whether quantum mechanics is a 'complete' theory in the sense of whether or not the wave function completely describes the physical circumstances in question. EPR conclude that it is not complete. Setting that aside, my question is: how would the same authors feel about Bohmian mechanics? Is it correct to say that, taken on its own terms, Bohmian mechanics would be accepted by Einstein as a 'complete' theory? After all, it expressly holds to nonlocality and 'spooky action at a distance'.