Hello everyone!

Recently I saw this paper: https://arxiv.org/pdf/1304.4801.pdf ("Any nonlocal model assuming “local parts” conflicts with relativity " by Antoine Suarez).

He mentions standard experimental configuration with beam-splitters and detectors. Then he distinguishes possible models by assuming "decision" about the outcome at beam-splitters (like Bohmian mechanics); or by assuming "decision" at detection.

After that he shows that the first group of models conflict with relativity. Moreover, he uses the notion of "nonlocality at detection" as opposed to "Bell's nonlocality" etc. And this logic can be find in almost every paper by this author (especially, about the so called "before-before" experiments). For example,

-https://arxiv.org/abs/1204.1732

or

-https://www.unige.ch/gap/quantum/_media/publications:bib:suarez.pdf

or

-https://arxiv.org/pdf/0708.1997.pdf

One time the author claimed that "after the before-before experiment Bohm’s interpretation can hardly be considered a valid alternative to Copenhagen".

I have several questions and would be grateful if anybody made some clarification:

1. Somehow Suarez opposes predictions of standard QM and such models as Bohmian mechanics. I thought that at some foundamental level their predictions are the same. Did I make a mistake?

2. Suarez considers Bohmian mechanics to contain some "locality". Again, I was sure that nonlocality is an important feature of BM. What do I miss?

3. Finally, does the conclusions in those papers prevent any attempts to make BM relativistic?

Sorry if these questions are too amateurish.

Recently I saw this paper: https://arxiv.org/pdf/1304.4801.pdf ("Any nonlocal model assuming “local parts” conflicts with relativity " by Antoine Suarez).

He mentions standard experimental configuration with beam-splitters and detectors. Then he distinguishes possible models by assuming "decision" about the outcome at beam-splitters (like Bohmian mechanics); or by assuming "decision" at detection.

After that he shows that the first group of models conflict with relativity. Moreover, he uses the notion of "nonlocality at detection" as opposed to "Bell's nonlocality" etc. And this logic can be find in almost every paper by this author (especially, about the so called "before-before" experiments). For example,

-https://arxiv.org/abs/1204.1732

or

-https://www.unige.ch/gap/quantum/_media/publications:bib:suarez.pdf

or

-https://arxiv.org/pdf/0708.1997.pdf

One time the author claimed that "after the before-before experiment Bohm’s interpretation can hardly be considered a valid alternative to Copenhagen".

I have several questions and would be grateful if anybody made some clarification:

1. Somehow Suarez opposes predictions of standard QM and such models as Bohmian mechanics. I thought that at some foundamental level their predictions are the same. Did I make a mistake?

2. Suarez considers Bohmian mechanics to contain some "locality". Again, I was sure that nonlocality is an important feature of BM. What do I miss?

3. Finally, does the conclusions in those papers prevent any attempts to make BM relativistic?

Sorry if these questions are too amateurish.

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