Bohr's electronic theory vs. Schroedinger equation?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the relationship between Bohr's electronic theory and the Schrödinger equation, particularly focusing on the implications of continuous wave function evolution versus the discrete energy state transitions described by Bohr. The scope includes theoretical aspects of quantum mechanics and the measurement problem.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions how the continuous evolution of the state vector in the Schrödinger equation aligns with Bohr's theory of discontinuous jumps between energy states.
  • Another participant asserts that Bohr's theory is partly incorrect and suggests consulting a FAQ for clarification on why electrons do not crash into the nucleus.
  • A participant acknowledges that while Bohr's concept of discrete orbits has been superseded by wave functions, they question whether energy and angular momentum are still quantized and how this relates to continuous evolution.
  • One participant explains that transitions between energy levels can be modeled using a linear superposition of wave functions, indicating that during a transition, the system does not have a definite energy and the probability distribution oscillates.
  • Another participant expresses understanding that while the wave function evolves continuously, measurements collapse the wave function, leading to observations of discrete jumps, linking this to the measurement problem.
  • A later reply suggests that the participant should continue discussing the measurement problem in existing threads rather than starting a new one.
  • One participant expresses hesitation about discussing the measurement problem due to feeling unqualified, attributing confusion to outdated educational materials that present wave mechanics without addressing Bohr's theory.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of Bohr's theory compared to the Schrödinger equation, with some asserting Bohr's theory is outdated while others defend its relevance. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of wave function evolution and measurement in quantum mechanics.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference the measurement problem and the evolution of wave functions, indicating a need for clarity on the implications of quantum mechanics education and its historical context. There is mention of unresolved confusion stemming from educational materials.

loom91
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Hi,

I was wondering, if the Schroedinger equation implies a continuous evolution of the state vector, then how does Bohr's theory of electron's discontinuous jumps between energy states fit in? Conversely, if an electron 'jumps' from one state to another with nothing intermediate, then how can its wave-function undergo continuous evolution? Thanks.

Molu
 
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Hi,

First of all, you cannot compare the validity of Bohr's theory with that of Schroder since the first one is partly incorrect. To see why, check out our FAQ (the first post to be exact : Why Don’t Electrons Crash Into The Nucleus In Atoms?) where we have answered this question.

Enjoy

regards
marlon
 
Yes, Bohr's concept of discreet orbits have been superceded by wavefunctions. But energy and angular momentum is still quantised, no? Their evolution is discontinuous? How does this fit into continuous unitary evolution?

Molu
 
loom91 said:
But energy and angular momentum is still quantised, no? Their evolution is discontinuous?

No, their evolution is not discontinuous. You can model a transition between two energy levels by constructing a linear superposition of the two time-dependent wave functions, in which the coefficients are time dependent:

[tex]\Psi(x,t) = a_1(t) \Psi_1(x,t) + a_2(t) \Psi_2(x,t)[/itex]<br /> <br /> If the wave functions are normalized properly, then at any time, [itex]a_1^*a_1[/itex] gives the probability that the system is in state 1, with energy [itex]E_1[/itex]; and [itex]a_2^*a_2[/itex] gives the probability that the system is in state 2, with energy [itex]E_2[/itex].<br /> <br /> Before the transition begins, [itex]a_1 = 1[/itex] and [itex]a_2 = 0[/itex]. At some later time, after the transition has finished, [itex]a_1 = 0[/itex] and [itex]a_2 = 1[/itex].<br /> <br /> During the transition, both [itex]a_1[/itex] and [itex]a_2[/itex] are nonzero, and the system does not have a definite energy. If you measure the energy partway through the transition, you may get either [itex]E_1[/itex] or [itex]E_2[/itex]. During the transition, the probability distribution [itex]\Psi^* \Psi[/itex] oscillates (sloshes around or pulsates) with frequency [itex]f = (E_2 - E_1) / h[/itex].[/tex]
 
Last edited:
Thank you, I think I understand. The wavefunction itself evolves continuously, but as measurement collapses the wavefunction, thus observations will seem to indicate discreet jumps. This is another manifestation of the measurement problem, a transition from the quantum world to the classical one.
 
loom91 said:
Thank you, I think I understand. The wavefunction itself evolves continuously, but as measurement collapses the wavefunction, thus observations will seem to indicate discreet jumps. This is another manifestation of the measurement problem, a transition from the quantum world to the classical one.


We have a number of threads going on different aspects of the measurement problem. Perhaps you would want to continue on one of them, rather than starting yet another new one?
 
I don't think I'm qualified enough to discuss the measurement problem seriously. I was just clearing a confusion brought about by the outdated quantum mechanics syllabus that includes wave mechanics without correcting Bohr's theory in our high school.
 

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