Bounded Function on Closed Interval: Proving Boundedness

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If a function f is defined on a closed interval [a,b] and is bounded in every neighborhood around each point in that interval, then f must be bounded on the entire interval. The discussion highlights the need for clarity in the original statement, suggesting it should specify that f is bounded on the neighborhoods rather than simply stating they are bounded. A contradiction approach is proposed, using the assumption that f is unbounded to derive a sequence that converges to a point in [a,b], which leads to a violation of the boundedness condition. The Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem is referenced as a key tool in constructing the proof. Overall, the conclusion reinforces that if every point's neighborhood is bounded, the function itself must be bounded on the closed interval.
Icebreaker
If f is defined on [a,b] and for every x in [a,b] there is a d_x such that if is bounded on [x-d_x, x+d_x]. Prove that f is bounded on [a,b].

This question seems very odd. If every point, and indeed the neighbourhood of every point is bounded, then of course the function itself must be bounded. Of course I doubt this can be passed as a proof, so any suggestions would be helpful.
 
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The statement "[x-d_x, x+d_x] is bounded" is a tautology. Is it meant to say f is bounded on [x-d_x, x+d_x]?
 
Yes, I believe so. I've made the modification but on the question sheet it was written exactly as I had copied it. My professor has a habit of handing out handwritten assignments.
 
Suppose that f was not bounded on [a,b]. Then there must exist a point c in [a,b] such that f(c) > M for all real M.

Does that sound like the right beginning?

Proceed to show a contradiction with boundedness on [x-d_x,x+d_x] for all x in [a,b].
 
If every point, and indeed the neighbourhood of every point is bounded, then of course the function itself must be bounded.

Consider 1/x on (0, 1) then.

If we assume that all d_x are strictly greater than 0, then I believe you can use the compactness of [a, b] to solve this problem.
 
Muzza said:
Consider 1/x on (0, 1) then.

The interval must be closed.
 
The interval must be closed.

You missed my point. I was objecting to your implication that the statement was rather trivial (or obvious) just because the function was bounded on every neighbourhood in its domain.
 
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True. However, I have found a proof using Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem. Thanks for the inputs.
 
Icebreaker said:
True. However, I have found a proof using Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem. Thanks for the inputs.
When you have a chance can you post a sketch of that proof?
 
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This will be sketchy, but the proof itself is not mine:

Assume the contrary, that f is unbounded. By Weierstrass, we can find a sequence x_n that converges to some number c in I = [a,b] and f(x_n)>n for every n. For this c, let d_c be as in the hypothesis. Then, for n large enough, x_n is in (c-d_c, c+d_c). This contradicts our hypothesis that f is bounded on (c-d_c, c+d_c).
 

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