Bounded Probability Density Function

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The discussion centers on the claim that if a random variable X has a continuous probability density function f(x) and its variance Var[X] is bounded away from zero, then f(x) must be bounded over its domain. Participants argue that this claim is false, citing the Chi-squared distribution with one degree of freedom as a counterexample, where the density function is unbounded despite the variance being positive. The relevance of continuity at specific points, such as x = 0, is also debated, emphasizing that the domain's boundaries do not affect the overall boundedness of the density function. Ultimately, the consensus is that the claim cannot be substantiated, as demonstrated by the provided examples. The discussion highlights the complexities of probability density functions in relation to variance.
robbins
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Let the random variable X have the probability density function f(x). Suppose f(x) is
continuous over its domain and Var[X] is bounded away from zero: 0 < c < Var[X].

Claim: f(x) is bounded over its domain.

Is this claim true?

I don't think a counterexample like X ~ ChiSq_1 applies because, while f(0) is not bounded, the domain is x > 0. The question of continuity at 0 doesn't arise since 0 is not part of the domain, and therefore the lack of boundedness at 0 isn't relevant. But for any given c > 0, I can find an M such that f(c) < M. This example does show, however, why one can't claim "uniformly bounded."

Similarly, a degenerate r.v. (all probability mass at the point X = c, say) is continuous (because it is discrete), but the variance is not bounded away from zero.

So the question remains: is the claim true? How might one prove it?

Thanks.
 
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robbins said:
Similarly, a degenerate r.v. (all probability mass at the point X = c, say) is continuous (because it is discrete), but the variance is not bounded away from zero.

That example isn't relevant, because a degenerate r.v. does not have a p.d.f.
 
Let the random variable X have the probability density function f(x). Suppose f(x) is
continuous over its domain and Var[X] is bounded away from zero: 0 < c < Var[X].

Claim: f(x) is bounded over its domain.

Is this claim true?
No, it is not, and the \chi^2_1 distribution you mention shows it. You do not need to worry about the pdf at x = 0, since the domain is only (0, \infty). The variance of \chi^2_k is \sigma^2 = 2k, so the variance of \chi^2_1 is bounded away from zero. However, the density is not bounded on its domain.
Statdad
 
The standard _A " operator" maps a Null Hypothesis Ho into a decision set { Do not reject:=1 and reject :=0}. In this sense ( HA)_A , makes no sense. Since H0, HA aren't exhaustive, can we find an alternative operator, _A' , so that ( H_A)_A' makes sense? Isn't Pearson Neyman related to this? Hope I'm making sense. Edit: I was motivated by a superficial similarity of the idea with double transposition of matrices M, with ## (M^{T})^{T}=M##, and just wanted to see if it made sense to talk...

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