Bridge Probabilities exactly 1 person with 1 suit?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of a player in the game of bridge being dealt a hand consisting entirely of one suit. The original poster expresses confusion regarding different interpretations of the problem and the corresponding probabilities.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand why their initial calculation of 4/52C13 does not match the book's answer, which involves more complex combinatorial expressions. Participants question the distinctions between three variations of the problem regarding how many players might receive all cards of one suit.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the nuances of the problem, particularly the differences between "exactly one person," "one person," and "one particular person" being dealt all cards of a single suit. There is an ongoing effort to clarify these distinctions and their implications for the probability calculations.

Contextual Notes

The original poster has referenced specific probabilities from a textbook, which may imply constraints or assumptions that are not fully articulated in the discussion. The complexity of the problem appears to arise from the need to account for multiple players potentially receiving cards of the same suit.

ti-84minus
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Homework Statement


In the game of bridge, four players are dealt 13 cards each from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. What is the probability that one of the players holds a hand that is made up of only one suit?


Homework Equations


nCr = n!/(r!(n-r)!)


The Attempt at a Solution


I know that when 1 player is dealt all of one particular suit, it should be 4/52C13
But for some reason, the answer at the back of the book for this question is very strange:
([(42*39!)/(13!3*3!) - (62*26!)/(13!2*2!) + 24] / (52!/(13!4*4!)

and this isn't equal to 4/52C13...

Since I already have the answer, I would like a thorough explanation of why it is so...
Thanks a lot!
:)
 
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You have stated three different problems in your post!

  1. What are the odds that exactly one person is dealt an entire suit
  2. What are the odds that one person is dealt an entire suit
  3. What are the odds that one particular person is dealt an entire suit

I imagine you will be able to solve things yourself once you can recognize how these are three different problems.
 
Thanks for the reply!
But I still do not recognize the difference between those three.
exactly one person,

one person,

one particular person.
Shouldn't they all equal to 4/52C13.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
You have to account for the possibility that 2 or 3 or 4 are all dealt the same suit...that's where the exactly one, one particular comes in.
 
ti-84minus said:
Thanks for the reply!
But I still do not recognize the difference between those three.
exactly one person,
exactly one of East, West, North, or South is dealt all the same suit

one person,
At least one but possibly more are dealt all the same suit.

one particular person.
North is dealt all the same suit.

(or "South is dealt all the same suit" or "East is dealt all the same suit" or "West is dealt all the same suit". Those four have the same probability.)
Shouldn't they all equal to 4/52C13.
 

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