Calculate Magnetic Pull Force for Steel Ball

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the magnetic pull force exerted by a disk magnet on a steel ball, emphasizing the relationship between energy density and magnetic properties. The proposed method involves using the equation F=∇(W0-W), where W0 represents the energy density with the ball and W is without it. The conversation also highlights the importance of magnetic susceptibility (χ) and permeability (μ) in determining the force, with the final force expression being F = χ μ ∫∫∫ grad(B dot B) dV. The method is deemed acceptable, with considerations for the geometry of the ball affecting the calculations.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of magnetic susceptibility (χ) and permeability (μ)
  • Familiarity with the concepts of energy density in magnetic fields
  • Knowledge of vector calculus, particularly gradient operations
  • Basic principles of magnetostatics and magnetic dipoles
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the application of Maxwell's equations in magnetostatics
  • Explore the derivation of the force on a magnetic dipole in a magnetic field
  • Study the effects of geometry on magnetic field calculations, particularly for spherical objects
  • Investigate numerical methods for simulating magnetic interactions in complex geometries
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in physics, particularly those studying electromagnetism, as well as engineers working with magnetic materials and applications.

Neil_Caffrey
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Homework Statement
Hello,
I am suppose to provide an equation to calculate the force that a disk magnet pulls a steel ball with respect to the distance between those two objects.

My idea is to calculate the difference between the energy density with and without the ball and then calculate the gradient of this change.
It will look something like F=∇(W0-W),
where W0 is the energy density with the ball and W is the energy density without it. The difference between them would be the permeability of the ball which varies on its size and material.

I don't have to calculate it exactly, just present some thought process. My question is: Is the method acceptable or should i rather focus on Maxwell tensor?
Thank you in advance.
 
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I think you have the right idea, but I can't tell exactly what you mean. Assuming that the ball is paramagnetic steel, its magnetization would be M = χ H, where χ is the magnetic susceptibility and H is the auxiliary field. H is related to the magnetic field by H = μ B, where μ is the permeability of the material ( μ = μ0 (1+χ) ). The force on a dipole is F = grad(m dot B), where m is the magnetic dipole moment, so the force density on the ball would be f = grad(M dot B). Then ∫∫∫ f dV (integral over the volume) would give the force. So F = χ μ ∫∫∫ grad(B dot B) dV.
 
Magnetic pressure = d BB0
where d = effective thickness of ball in direction of B field. This assumes infinite μ of the ball.

This formula would be exact for a rectangular material of infinite permeabiluity but for a ball the area is the cross-section and the thickness is some kind of average I guess.
 

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