Calculating 7^402 mod 1000 with Euler's Theorem

  • Thread starter Thread starter pivoxa15
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Theorem
Click For Summary
To calculate 7^402 mod 1000 using Euler's Theorem, first recognize that since 7 is relatively prime to 1000, Euler's Totient function gives phi(1000) = 400. This leads to the conclusion that 7^400 ≡ 1 (mod 1000), allowing the reduction of 7^402 to 7^2, which equals 49. For the second question regarding 11^100 mod 72, the discussion suggests reducing it to 11^4 mod 72, which simplifies to 25 after further calculations. The conversation emphasizes the application of Euler's Theorem and modular arithmetic techniques for efficient computation.
pivoxa15
Messages
2,250
Reaction score
1
I have got another question, this time involving the Euler's Theorem:

a^(phi(m)) is congruent to 1 (mod m)

The question is calculate

7^40002 mod 1000

I could only reduce it to

7^402 mod 1000

What should I do now?

Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
pivoxa15 said:
I have got another question, this time involving the Euler's Theorem:

a^(phi(m)) is congruent to 1 (mod m)

The question is calculate

7^40002 mod 1000

I could only reduce it to

7^402 mod 1000

What should I do now?

Thanks
Again with the vague theorem referrence. This time you clearly mean Eulers Totient Theorem. Why not reduce once more?
we have 7 relatively prime to 1000.
phi(1000)=1000-1000/2-1000/5+1000/10=1100-700=400
so (all mod 1000)
7^400=1
7^40002=((7^400)^100)(7^2)=(1^100)(7^2)=7^2=49
 
Thanks lurlurf, I didn't apply the Euler Totient theorem fully but I have another one

11^100 (mod 72)

This time I reduced it to 11^4 (mod 72)

I could evaluate it by hand which works out to be 7^4 (mod 72) but is there a better way of doing it.

Thanks
 
11^4 is 121^2 and you can reduce 121 can't you? so 99^2 then, which is (40+9)^2 whcih is quite easy to work out and reduce esp since 72 divides 1440, hence 1512 and thus 1584 so it's what?

6+2.40.9+81=6+9=15
 
Wait a minute :

11^4 = 121^2 == (-23)^2 = 529 =(72*7) + 25

So, 11^4 == 25 (mod 72)...no?
 
oh i don't claim to have got the arithmetic right, only the method. i am a mathematician after all. i know how to solve it, doesn't mean i can get it rgight when i try.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
26
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
5K
Replies
2
Views
2K