Calculating Mean and Variance of a Ratio of Gamma-Distributed Random Variables

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the mean and variance of the ratio of two gamma-distributed random variables, specifically X/(X+Y), where X and Y follow gamma distributions with parameters influenced by Poisson distributions. Participants explore the complexities of deriving these statistics and the implications of the underlying distributions.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states that X and Y are gamma-distributed with parameters that are Poisson distributed, seeking a method to find the mean and variance of X/(X+Y).
  • Another participant recalls that quotients of random variables are often analytically challenging, suggesting simulation as a practical alternative.
  • A participant mentions that if X and Y are independent and identically distributed (i.i.d.) normal variables, the ratio would follow a Cauchy distribution, which lacks defined moments.
  • One participant asserts that X/(X+Y) follows a Beta distribution with parameters k1 and k2, providing expressions for its mean and variance, but notes the lack of a closed form when k1 and k2 are Poisson distributed.
  • Concerns are raised about the model's validity, particularly regarding the possibility of k1 or k2 being zero, which would render the model undefined.
  • Participants discuss the implications of requiring k1 and k2 to be greater than zero, questioning whether this restriction affects the choice of distribution for k1 and k2.
  • One participant emphasizes that using distributions like Poisson or Binomial is problematic if they allow for zero values, suggesting the need for a distribution that does not include zero.
  • Another participant suggests that k1 and k2 could be approximations to other distributions, but questions about the nature of these approximations arise.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of the model when k1 or k2 can be zero, with some arguing it is a technicality while others assert it fundamentally undermines the model. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the appropriate distribution for k1 and k2 under the constraints of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the dependence on the definitions of the distributions involved, the unresolved status of the model when k1 or k2 equals zero, and the implications of approximating distributions that must exclude zero.

jimmy1
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I have two random variables X and Y. Now the distribution of X and Y, is a bit complicated. Basically they follow Gamma distributions, X=\Gamma(k1,\theta) and Y=\Gamma(k2,\theta), but k1 and k2 are Poisson distributed. But I do have a closed form expression for the distribution of X and Y, and also have an expression for their mean and variances.


Now what I would like to do is find an expression for the mean and variance of X/(X+Y).
So I'd like to know, is there a short way of getting the mean and variance of X/(X+Y), from the mean and variance of X and Y and if not, then how would I go about finding the mean and variance of X/(X+Y).
Any ideas??
 
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From college prob & stat, I remember quotients of random variables as being notoriously difficult analytically. E.g. their means and variances being expressed with the "squiggly equal sign" rather than the "straight equal sign."

But for practical applications, you can always simulate.
 
... unless you can show Γ1/(Γ1 + Γ2) ~ F, where F is a known distribution. E.g., if X and Y were i.i.d. Normal with zero means, then X + Y would be Normal with zero mean, and Normal(0,σ12)/Normal(0,σ22) is distributed Cauchy -- which does not happen to have moments, so if this were the case you would have a nonexistence result.

See also.
 
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Thanks for that EnumaElish. And yes Γ1/(Γ1 + Γ2) does follow a known distribution, as Beta distribution. So in my case the distribution of X/(X+Y) would follow a Beta distribution with parameters k1 and k2, ie B(k1,k2).
But the problem with this is that there is no closed form expression of B(k1,k2) when k1, and k2 are Poisson distributed, so I'm unable to get a closed form expression for the mean and variance of X/(X+Y).
That's why I was wondering if there was any way of getting an expression for the mean and variance of X/(X+Y), from the mean and variance of X and Y, or maybe a similar shortcut approach??
 
jimmy1 said:
Basically they follow Gamma distributions, X=\Gamma(k1,\theta) and Y=\Gamma(k2,\theta), but k1 and k2 are Poisson distributed.
The first parameter in a Gamma distribution must be positive. However, a Poisson random variable has a positive probability of being 0. So this model looks like it is not well-defined.
 
jimmy1 said:
I have two random variables X and Y. Now the distribution of X and Y, is a bit complicated. Basically they follow Gamma distributions, X=\Gamma(k1,\theta) and Y=\Gamma(k2,\theta), but k1 and k2 are Poisson distributed. But I do have a closed form expression for the distribution of X and Y, and also have an expression for their mean and variances.Now what I would like to do is find an expression for the mean and variance of X/(X+Y).
So I'd like to know, is there a short way of getting the mean and variance of X/(X+Y), from the mean and variance of X and Y and if not, then how would I go about finding the mean and variance of X/(X+Y).
Any ideas??

X/(X+Y) is a beta distribution with parameters k1 and k2. Therefore, the mean of X/(X+Y) is \frac{k1}{k1+k2} and the variance is \frac{k1k2}{(k1+k2)^2(k1+k2+1)}. Now just take the expected values of these. Which isn't the funnest thing in the world.

I think I proved that the distribution of X/(X+Y) is a beta distribution sometime ago on these forums. Or it might have been X/Y is beta (of the 2nd kind).
 
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ZioX said:
X/(X+Y) is a beta distribution with parameters k1 and k2. Therefore, the mean of X/(X+Y) is \frac{k1}{k1+k2} and the variance is \frac{k1k2}{(k1+k2)^2(k1+k2+1)}. Now just take the expected values of these. Which isn't the funnest thing in the world.
Those expected values are undefined. The probability that k_1 = 0 and k_2 = 0 is positive, in which case both those expressions are 0/0. So it is not even that those expectations are infinite. They simply do not make sense. The OP needs to correct his model, so that it is well-defined.
 
Jason Swanson said:
ZioX said:
X/(X+Y) is a beta distribution with parameters k1 and k2. Therefore, the mean of X/(X+Y) is \frac{k1}{k1+k2} and the variance is \frac{k1k2}{(k1+k2)^2(k1+k2+1)}. Now just take the expected values of these. Which isn't the funnest thing in the world.
Those expected values are undefined. The probability that k_1 = 0 and k_2 = 0 is positive, in which case both those expressions are 0/0. So it is not even that those expectations are infinite. They simply do not make sense. The OP needs to correct his model, so that it is well-defined.

Yes you're right the model is undefined when k1=0 or k2=0, but isn't this just a technicality??
So, am I right in saying that there is nothing wrong with the model, as long as I state that k1>0 and k2>0, and hence making the model well-defined??
 
jimmy1 said:
Yes you're right the model is undefined when k1=0 or k2=0, but isn't this just a technicality??
So, am I right in saying that there is nothing wrong with the model, as long as I state that k1>0 and k2>0, and hence making the model well-defined??
But if k1 > 0 and k2 > 0, then they are not Poisson distributed. So what is their distribution?
 
  • #10
Jason Swanson said:
But if k1 > 0 and k2 > 0, then they are not Poisson distributed. So what is their distribution?

Well technically k1 and k2 are binomially distributed, but I was thinking of using the Poisson distribution to make things a bit easier.
But anyway from your argument, the problem still exists if I use a binomial dsitribution?
So basically you are saying that I cannot use the binomial or Poisson distribution as the distribution for the two parameters in a Beta distribution?
But can't I just say something like k1 and k2 are 'approximations' to binomial/poisson distributions where k1>0 and k2>0??
 
  • #11
You are right that you cannot use Binomial either. You must use a distribution with no mass at 0. In my opinion, it is not enough to say that it is an approximation to a Poisson or a Binomial. You must tell us what that approximation is. There may be many ways to approximate these, and your results may be different, depending on how you do it. Is this a model of some real-world phenomenon? If so, what is it? The context of the model may help you determine which distribution to use.
 

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