Undergrad Calculating the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum

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The discussion focuses on calculating the orbital angular momentum for the state l=1 and m=-1 using the angular momentum operator. The operator is expressed in terms of spherical coordinates, and the user attempts to apply it to the wave function Y_{1,-1} = csin(θ)e^{-iφ}. Initially, the user encounters a result of zero, which contradicts the expected value of 2ħ². After clarification from another participant, the user realizes a misinterpretation of the sine and cosine terms in the calculations, leading to the correct understanding of the angular momentum measurement. The conversation highlights the importance of careful algebraic manipulation in quantum mechanics calculations.
TheBlueDot
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Hello,

I'm trying to calculate the measurement of the orbital angular momentum of the state l=1 and m = -1. The operator for the angular momentum squared is
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}(sin\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##,

which expands to
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial sin\theta}{\partial \theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}+sin\theta \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \theta^2}) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##

When operate this on the wave function ##Y_{1,-1} = csin\theta e^{-i\phi}##, I got

##Y_{1,-1}*(\frac{cos^2\theta}{sin\theta} -\frac{sin^2\theta}{sin\theta}-\frac{1}{sin\theta})##,

which is zero. The answer should be ##2\hbar^2##.

If the cosine term is zero, then I'll get the right result.

Please help!

Thanks
 
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TheBlueDot said:
Hello,

I'm trying to calculate the measurement of the orbital angular momentum of the state l=1 and m = -1. The operator for the angular momentum squared is
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}(sin\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##,

which expands to
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial sin\theta}{\partial \theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}+sin\theta \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \theta^2}) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##

When operate this on the wave function ##Y_{1,-1} = csin\theta e^{-i\phi}##, I got

##Y_{1,-1}*(\frac{cos^2\theta}{sin\theta} -\frac{sin^2\theta}{sin\theta}-\frac{1}{sin\theta})##,

which is zero. The answer should be ##2\hbar^2##.

If the cosine term is zero, then I'll get the right result.

Please help!

Thanks

##\frac{cos^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{1-sin^2(\theta) - sin^2(\theta) - 1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{-2 sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} = -2 sin(\theta)##
 
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stevendaryl said:
##\frac{cos^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{1-sin^2(\theta) - sin^2(\theta) - 1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{-2 sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} = -2 sin(\theta)##
@stevendaryl,
Thanks for your response. I feel silly now. I looked at the ##sin^2(\theta) -1 ## and thought it was ##cos^2(\theta)##.
 
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It doesn't say ##\ \ \sin^2(\theta) -1\ ##, but ##\ \ - \sin^2(\theta) -1\ \ ## :rolleyes:
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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