Petrus
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Hello MHB,
I got no clue about that, well I start wounder but I don't think so but is that same as
$$(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}})^{56}$$
then I could go to polar form and get
$$r=1$$ that means $$cos\theta=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \ sin\theta=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$$ that means we got $$(e^{i\frac{\pi}{4}})^{56} <=>e^{i14\pi} $$ so we got $$1^{56}(1+0i) =1$$
Is this correct?
Regards,
$$|\rangle$$

I got no clue about that, well I start wounder but I don't think so but is that same as
$$(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}})^{56}$$
then I could go to polar form and get
$$r=1$$ that means $$cos\theta=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \ sin\theta=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$$ that means we got $$(e^{i\frac{\pi}{4}})^{56} <=>e^{i14\pi} $$ so we got $$1^{56}(1+0i) =1$$
Is this correct?
Regards,
$$|\rangle$$