Calculating work on an electron on an equipotential surface

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of work done on an electron moving along a metallic equipotential surface. Participants explore the implications of the equipotential nature of the surface on the forces acting on the electron and the work done by an applied force.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question the relationship between work done, kinetic energy changes, and the forces involved, particularly in the context of an equipotential surface. There is exploration of whether work can be zero if kinetic energy change is also zero, and discussions about the necessary conditions for applied force.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with participants raising questions about the nature of forces and work in this scenario. Some suggest that the force required to move the electron could be arbitrarily small, while others express confusion about the implications of zero kinetic energy change and the role of friction.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the idealized nature of the problem, suggesting that real-world factors such as friction and external fields could complicate the scenario. There is an acknowledgment of the paradoxes that arise from assuming ideal conditions in physics problems.

AdrianMachin
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This is not a homework, but a question formed in my mind after reading my textbook.

Homework Statement


Consider an electron (a charged particle) on a metallic equipotential surface. We know that all the points on the surface are equipotential, thus there will be no force on charged particles on the surface and no tendency to move on their own. We move the electron form point i to point f with our applied force. Find the equation for the work on the electron from the applied force.

Homework Equations


We know from the equation (I) in the attached picture that the work done by the field will be zero because the field lines are prependicular to the surface, thus making the dot product zero.

The Attempt at a Solution


From the equations (II) and (III) we see that the work by the applied force is equal to the changes in the electron's kinetic energy, right? But will our work be zero if ΔK=0? Why? Does it cancel with the work from friction? How?
 

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AdrianMachin said:
But will our work be zero if ΔK=0?
Yes.
If ΔK=0 and there is no friction, how great a force was needed/used?
 
haruspex said:
Yes.
If ΔK=0 and there is no friction, how great a force was needed/used?
What do you mean? The magnitude of Fapp?
I don't know, that's why I asked this question.
 
AdrianMachin said:
What do you mean? The magnitude of Fapp?
I don't know, that's why I asked this question.
Well, do you think 1N would have got it there? 0.1N? 0.00000000001N? Time is immaterial.
 
haruspex said:
Well, do you think 1N would have got it there? 0.1N? 0.00000000001N? Time is immaterial.
I think that makes a paradox because if there are no other forces than the electric force caused by the field which is perpendicular to the surface and the applied force, then there is an acceleration based on Newton's second law, so ΔK cannot be zero...
 
AdrianMachin said:
I think that makes a paradox because if there are no other forces than the electric force caused by the field which is perpendicular to the surface and the applied force, then there is an acceleration based on Newton's second law, so ΔK cannot be zero...
Yes, but it can be arbitrarily small, so effectively zero.
 
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haruspex said:
Yes, but it can be arbitrarily small, so effectively zero.
Well, I don't know the answer to the question you asked.
 
AdrianMachin said:
Well, I don't know the answer to the question you asked.
I answered it in post #6. The force is effectively zero.
 
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haruspex said:
I answered it in post #6. The force is effectively zero.
Thanks.
Please correct my following conclusions if it is wrong:

The formula for the work done by the applied force on the electron would be ##W_{app} = m_ead##, so we must move it with a non-zero acceleration in order to have a non-zero ##W_{app}##, and from Newton's second law we'll have ##a=\frac {F_{app}-f_k} {m_e}## so the ##F_{app} \neq f_k## condition must exist.
 
  • #10
AdrianMachin said:
Thanks.
Please correct my following conclusions if it is wrong:

The formula for the work done by the applied force on the electron would be ##W_{app} = m_ead##, so we must move it with a non-zero acceleration in order to have a non-zero ##W_{app}##, and from Newton's second law we'll have ##a=\frac {F_{app}-f_k} {m_e}## so the ##F_{app} \neq f_k## condition must exist.
The real world is never ideal. There is always some friction, some extraneous field, whatever. In most academic physics problems you can idealise matters without great consequence, but sometimes it leads to paradoxes.
Yes, if the particle is ever to get to where it is going it must be given a nonzero speed, but there is no time constraint, so there is no nonzero lower limit to the speed. Within any reasonable margin of error, the minimum speed is zero.
 
  • #11
haruspex said:
Yes, if the particle is ever to get to where it is going it must be given a nonzero speed, but there is no time constraint, so there is no nonzero lower limit to the speed. Within any reasonable margin of error, the minimum speed is zero.

Excuse me, non-zero speed or acceleration?
 
  • #12
AdrianMachin said:
Excuse me, non-zero speed or acceleration?
Both.
 
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