Graduate Can a Scalar Equation Be Transformed into Lagrangian Form?

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The discussion revolves around transforming a scalar equation of motion into Lagrangian form by finding a non-zero function μ(t, x, ẋ). Participants explore methods to express the equation in the form of the Euler-Lagrange equation, with references to the Cauchy-Kowalewski theorem and the Helmholtz conditions. The Helmholtz conditions are noted as necessary for the existence of a corresponding Lagrangian, particularly in one-dimensional problems. Techniques such as Jacobi's Last Multiplier are suggested for deriving μ, emphasizing the relationship between the equation of motion and Lagrangian mechanics. The conversation highlights the complexity of the transformation while seeking a more elementary approach.
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There is a problem from a Russian textbook in classical mechanics.

Consider a scalar equation $$\ddot x=F(t,x,\dot x),\quad x\in\mathbb{R}.$$ Show that this equation can be multiplied by a function ##\mu(t,x,\dot x)\ne 0## such that the resulting equation
$$\mu\ddot x=\mu F(t,x,\dot x)$$ has the Lagrangian form
$$\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x}-\frac{\partial L}{\partial x}=0.$$
I can only say that by the Cauchy-Kowalewski theorem it can be done locally provided ##F## is an analytic function.

But some relatively elementary way is supposed. Sure it is a local assertion.

What do you think?
 
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I've only seen the Lagrangian written like that when trying to maximize an integral. How is ##L## defined here? My brief googling didn't find anything useful.
 
Office_Shredder said:
How is L defined here?
from the Cauchy-Kowalewski theorem. I do not have other idea.
 
Sorry, I think I misunderstood the question. Is it supposed to be show there exists ##\mu## such that ##\mu\ddot x - \mu F## can be written as ##\frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x} -\frac{\partial L}{\partial x}## for some ##L## which is presumably formed by ##F## and ##\mu##?
 
Office_Shredder said:
Sorry, I think I misunderstood the question. Is it supposed to be show there exists μ such that μx¨−μF can be written as ddt∂L∂x˙−∂L∂x for some L which is presumably formed by F and μ?
yes and ##\mu(t,x,\dot x)\ne 0##
 
The obvious course is to expand the total time derivative and substitute \ddot x = F, which yields <br /> F\frac{\partial^2L}{\partial \dot x^2} + \dot x \frac{\partial^2L}{\partial x \,\partial \dot x} + \frac{\partial^2L}{\partial t\,\partial \dot x} - \frac{\partial L}{\partial x} = 0 as an equation for L; \mu is then equal to \dfrac{\partial^2L}{\partial \dot x^2}. I haven't attempted to solve this.

Another approach is to write \mu \ddot x = \frac{d}{dt}(\mu \dot x) - \frac{d\mu}{dt}\dot x so that <br /> \frac{d}{dt}(\mu\dot x) - \frac{d\mu}{dt}\dot x - \mu F = 0 and try to solve <br /> \begin{split}<br /> \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x} &amp;= \mu\dot x \\<br /> \frac{\partial L}{\partial x} &amp;= \frac{d\mu}{dt}\dot x + \mu F\end{split}
 
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pasmith said:
The obvious course is to expand the total time derivative and substitute x¨=F, which yields F∂2L∂x˙2+x˙∂2L∂x∂x˙+∂2L∂t∂x˙−∂L∂x=0 as an equation for L;
yes and that is why I referred to Cauchy-Kowalewski
 
wrobel said:
There is a problem from a Russian textbook in classical mechanics.
Does the textbook mention the "Helmholtz conditions" in The Inverse Problem in Lagrangian Mechanics, (or similar)?

In brief, the Helmholtz conditions on a given equation of motion (EoM) are necessary and sufficient for a corresponding Lagrangian to exist.

For 1D problems, 2 of the 3 Helmholtz conditions are trivially satisfied.

Write the EoM as ##\,G(x,\dot x, \ddot x, t) = 0\,##. Then the 3rd Helmholtz condition boils down to$$\frac{\partial G}{\partial \dot x} ~=~ \frac{d}{dt}\, \frac{\partial G}{\partial \ddot x}~.$$If this is not immediately satisfied, one can use the technique of "Jacobi's Last Multiplier", and write ##H := \mu(\dot x, x,t)\, G## which obviously satisfies the EoM. The Helmholtz condition on ##H## says $$\frac{\partial \mu}{\partial \dot x} \, G ~+~ \mu \, \frac{\partial G}{\partial \dot x} ~=~ \frac{d\mu}{dt}~,$$ (since we're assuming ##G## is 1st order in ##\ddot x##). Then the idea is to choose ##\mu## to be independent of ##\dot x## and solve what's left to get something like $$\mu ~=~ \exp\left(\int\! \frac{\partial G}{\partial \dot x} \, dt\right) ~.$$
wrobel said:
[...] But some relatively elementary way is supposed.
Elementary, yes -- but relying on a very nontrivial theorem about the Helmholtz conditions. :oldwink:

References:

1) Anton Almen's paper: https://jfuchs.hotell.kau.se/kurs/amek/prst/19_heco.pdf
which contains the nontrivial proof, but also works through the 1D harmonic oscillator as an example. Partially, a shorter version of the next reference:

2) Nigam & Banerjee, "A Brief Review of Helmholtz Conditions",
Available as: arxiv:1602.01563

Google gives many references about Helmholtz conditions and the technique of "Jacobi's Last Multiplier".

I hope that helps. :oldsmile:
 
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Thanks a lot. That is interesting indeed. I have never heard about the Helmholtz conditions
 
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