Can All Smooth Functions Near Zero Be Expressed by This Double Series?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the expressibility of smooth functions near zero using a specific double series format: f(x) = \sum_{m = 0}^\infty \sum_{n = 0}^\infty a_m x^m \exp \bigg( - \frac{b_n}{x^n} \bigg). It is established that not all smooth functions can be represented by this series, with f(x) = \exp ( - \exp (1/x^2) ) cited as a definitive counterexample. The conversation also touches on the relationship between this topic and instantons in quantum field theory (QFT).

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Ben Niehoff
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As you should know, a function can be smooth in some neighborhood and yet fail to be analytic. A canonical example is ##\exp (-1/x^2)## near ##x = 0##. My question is this: suppose I want to express a given function as a double series,

[tex]f(x) = \sum_{m = 0}^\infty \sum_{n = 0}^\infty a_m x^m \exp \bigg( - \frac{b_n}{x^n} \bigg)[/tex]
Is this series general enough to express all smooth functions in some open neighborhood of 0? And if not, what do the counterexamples look like?

This has some relationship to instantons in QFT.
 
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Never mind, I see that

[tex]f(x) = \exp ( - \exp (1/x^2) )[/tex]
is a counterexample.

Carry on, then.
 

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