My quantum textbook says that the probability of finding an electron in a 1s orbital between r and r+dr is given by Prob = (4/a^3)*(r^2)*exp(-2r/a) dr. In this case, Prob(0) = 0 because of the r^2, which is part of the volume element in spherical polar. Does this mean that it is impossible to find an electron at r = 0? I have learned the opposite in several chemistry classes, so I would very much appreciate if someone could clear this up.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks!

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# I Can an electron in an s-orbital exist at the nucleus (r=0)?

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**