Can Anyone Help Understand Einstein's 1905 Derivation of E=mc^2?

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    Derivation E=mc^2
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The forum discussion centers on Einstein's 1905 derivation of E=mc², specifically the interpretation of the plus sign in the term 1+(v/c)cos(φ) for a light ray emitted in the opposite direction. The angle φ represents the angle between the source/receiver line-of-sight and the receiver's direction of motion, as perceived in the source frame. The plus sign can be understood as a result of symmetry, where the second photon emitted at an angle of φ + 180° leads to the same transformation of frequency. This symmetry argument is crucial for comprehending the derivation.

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Link: https://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/E_mc2/www/

The only part I'm having trouble with is how he gets the plus sign in that 1+(v/c)cos(φ) numerator for the "other" light ray (emitted in the opposite direction of the first).

My understanding is that the φ he uses in his general Doppler equation represents the angle formed by the source/receiver line-of-sight (as seen by the source at the time of emission) and the receiver's direction of motion (as measured in the source frame). If that's right, then the plus sign in that numerator is equivalent to taking the cosine of (φ + 180°) rather than φ for the "other" light ray.

So I'm 99% sure that it's an implied symmetry argument, but I don't know how to demonstrate its validity mathematically.

Can anyone help me out?
 
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I think maybe I've misunderstood what the angle represents, and that this is much simpler than I suspected.
 
SiennaTheGr8 said:
Link: https://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/E_mc2/www/

The only part I'm having trouble with is how he gets the plus sign in that 1+(v/c)cos(φ) numerator for the "other" light ray (emitted in the opposite direction of the first).

My understanding is that the φ he uses in his general Doppler equation represents the angle formed by the source/receiver line-of-sight (as seen by the source at the time of emission) and the receiver's direction of motion (as measured in the source frame). If that's right, then the plus sign in that numerator is equivalent to taking the cosine of (φ + 180°) rather than φ for the "other" light ray.

So I'm 99% sure that it's an implied symmetry argument, but I don't know how to demonstrate its validity mathematically.

Can anyone help me out?

If two photons are sent in opposite directions, and one makes an angle of \varphi with respect to the x-axis, then the other makes an angle of \varphi + 180^o with respect to the x axis. So for the transformation of frequency, etc., for the second photon, you just replace \varphi by \varphi + 180^o.
 

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