Can anyone please review/verify/check this number theory proof?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof in number theory concerning the greatest common divisor (gcd) of two numbers and their sum and product. The original poster attempts to prove that if gcd(a, b) = 1, then gcd(a+b, ab) = 1, using a proof by contradiction.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question the initial assumption made in the proof and suggest clarifying the statement regarding gcd(a+b, ab). There is discussion about the placement of the phrase "without loss of generality" and its implications in the proof structure.

Discussion Status

Multiple interpretations of the proof's initial assumptions are being explored, with some participants providing guidance on how to structure the proof more clearly. There is acknowledgment of revisions made by the original poster, but no explicit consensus on the final form of the proof has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of correctly using mathematical notation and the implications of assumptions in proofs, particularly in the context of proof by contradiction.

Math100
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Homework Statement
Prove that if gcd(a, b)=1, then gcd(a+b, ab)=1.
Relevant Equations
None.
Proof: Suppose for the sake of contradiction that gcd(a, b) \neq 1.
Then there exists a prime number k that divides both a+b and ab.
Note that k divides either a or b.
Since k divides a+b,
it follows that k divides b.
Thus, this is a contradiction because a and b are relatively prime.
Therefore, if gcd(a, b)=1, then gcd(a+b, ab)=1.
 
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Math100 said:
Homework Statement:: Prove that if gcd(a, b)=1, then gcd(a+b, ab)=1.
Relevant Equations:: None.

Suppose for the sake of contradiction that gcd(a, b)\neq1.
Did you mean ##\gcd(a+b, ab) \neq 1##?

Math100 said:
Homework Statement:: Prove that if gcd(a, b)=1, then gcd(a+b, ab)=1.
Relevant Equations:: None.

Note that k divides either a or b.
Since k divides a+b,
it follows that k divides b.
It looks like, WLOG, we assumed ##k## divides ##a##.

Everything else looks good to me.
 
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fishturtle1 said:
Did you mean ##\gcd(a+b, ab) \neq 1##?It looks like, WLOG, we assumed ##k## divides ##a##.

Everything else looks good to me.
Yes, it was meant as 'does not equal' sign from latex.
 
Math100 said:
Yes, it was meant as 'does not equal' sign from latex.
I meant that in the first line in OP, it reads "Suppose that for sake of contradiction that ##\gcd(a, b) \neq 1##." But in the proof, you are using the assumption that ##\gcd(a+b, ab) \neq 1##.
 
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But where should I place the sentence of "Without the loss of generality..."?
 
Math100 said:
But where should I place the sentence of "Without the loss of generality..."?
Note that k divides a or b. Without loss of generality, assume k divides a.
 
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Oh, I see what you meant. The first sentence in the proof should be: Suppose for the sake of contradiction that gcd(a+b, ab) \neq 1. Because for using proof of contradiction, it's (P is true, Q is false), am I right?
 
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Math100 said:
Oh, I see what you meant. The first sentence in the proof should be: Suppose for the sake of contradiction that gcd(a+b, ab) \neq 1. Because for using proof of contradiction, it's (P is true, Q is false), am I right?
Yes, you are correct!
 
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Below is my revised proof for this problem:

Suppose for the sake of contradiction that gcd(a+b, ab) \neq 1.
Then there exists a prime number k that divides both a+b and ab.
Note that k divides a or b.
Without loss of generality,
we assume that k divides a.
Since k divides a+b,
it follows that k divides b.
Thus, this is a contradiction because a and b are relatively prime.
Therefore, if gcd(a, b)=1, then gcd(a+b, ab)=1.

QED
 
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  • #10
Can anyone please review/verify/check my revised proof above?
 
  • #11
@fishturtle1 , I think my proof is perfect now, given the fact that you upvoted my revised proof. Thank you for the help on this problem.
 
  • #12
This looks good to me. Note if you put two # signs on each side of your math formulas, it will render as tex so \neq becomes ##\neq## (try quoting other people's posts to see what it looks like if you still aren't sure)
 
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  • #13
Office_Shredder said:
This looks good to me. Note if you put two # signs on each side of your math formulas, it will render as tex so \neq becomes ##\neq## (try quoting other people's posts to see what it looks like if you still aren't sure)
Okay, thank you.
 

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