pfontec Messages 3 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Jul 27, 2011 #1 Is it possible to solve C= (pi)d where C= any prime and d= to any prime?
Robert1986 Messages 825 Reaction score 2 Jul 27, 2011 #2 Assume it is; then pi=c/d. Now, is it solvable?
HallsofIvy Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 42,895 Reaction score 983 Jul 28, 2011 #3 What do you mean by "pi" here? Surely not just the number [itex]\pi[/itex]?