Can Definite Integrals Be Divided Algebraically?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the algebraic manipulation of definite integrals, specifically addressing the quotient of two definite integrals, expressed as \(\frac{\int_a^b f(s) ds}{\int_c^d g(t) dt}\). It is established that unlike the product of integrals, which can be represented as a double integral, the same does not hold true for quotients. The integral of a reciprocal does not equate to the reciprocal of the integral, confirming that such algebraic division is not valid.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of definite integrals
  • Familiarity with algebraic manipulation of integrals
  • Knowledge of double integrals
  • Basic calculus concepts
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties of definite integrals
  • Explore the concept of double integrals in multivariable calculus
  • Study the behavior of integrals involving reciprocals
  • Learn about the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus
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Students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those studying calculus, as well as educators seeking to clarify the properties of definite integrals and their algebraic manipulations.

drewfstr314
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Is there a general algebraic way to write the quotient of two definite integrals as one? I mean, what would be

[itex]\frac{\int_a^b f(s) ds}{\int_c^d g(t) dt}[/itex]

Is it analogous to the product of integrals creating a double integral?

Thanks in advance!
 
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Let's see how a double integral of a product (of functions of different variables) can be written as a product of single integrals:[itex]\int^{d}_{c}\int^{b}_{a}f(s)g(t) dsdt = \int^{d}_{c}g(t)\left(\int^{b}_{a}f(s) ds\right) dt = \left(\int^{b}_{a}f(s) ds\right)\left(\int^{d}_{c}g(t) dt\right)[/itex]. You can verify that the same kind of thing doesn't work for quotients, because the integral of a reciprocal is not the reciprocal of the integral.
 

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