- #1

- 63

- 0

## Main Question or Discussion Point

I am quite new to Quantum Mechanics and I am studying it from the book by Griffiths, as kind of a self-study..no instructor and all....

For a gaussian wavefunction [tex]\Psi[/tex]=Aexp(-x[tex]^{2}[/tex]), I calculated

<p[tex]^{2}[/tex]> and found it to be equal to ah[tex]^{2}[/tex]/(1-2aiht/m)

(By h I mean h-bar..not so good at latex yet)

Can it be correct? How can expectation value of p[tex]^{2}[/tex] be imaginary?

For a gaussian wavefunction [tex]\Psi[/tex]=Aexp(-x[tex]^{2}[/tex]), I calculated

<p[tex]^{2}[/tex]> and found it to be equal to ah[tex]^{2}[/tex]/(1-2aiht/m)

(By h I mean h-bar..not so good at latex yet)

Can it be correct? How can expectation value of p[tex]^{2}[/tex] be imaginary?