Can Fourier Series Help Solve this Summation Question?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Fourier series to evaluate the summation of the series \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n-1)^2}\), specifically aiming to show that it equals \(\frac{\pi^2}{8}\). Participants explore how to manipulate the Fourier series to derive this result, with a focus on selecting appropriate values for \(x\) in the series.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a Fourier series and expresses uncertainty about how to use it to prove the summation result.
  • Another suggests choosing \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\) to simplify the series by making the cosine terms vanish for odd \(n\).
  • A different participant prompts consideration of an \(x\) value that would make the cosine zero for all even \(n\) while remaining non-zero for odd \(n\).
  • One participant provides the piecewise definition of the function \(f(x)\) used in the Fourier series.
  • Another participant acknowledges that using \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\) leads to a series involving only odd numbers, which aligns with the target summation.
  • A later post clarifies that the original question specifies using \(x = 0\), raising the concern about the appropriateness of using \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\).
  • One participant notes that the question implies a specific \(x\) value to use, suggesting that plugging this into the series should yield the answer.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying opinions on the choice of \(x\) to use in the Fourier series, with some advocating for \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\) while others emphasize the necessity of using \(x = 0\) as specified in the question. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the best approach to prove the summation result.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty regarding the closed form of the function \(f(x)\) and how it relates to the Fourier series. Additionally, the implications of different choices for \(x\) on the convergence and evaluation of the series are not fully explored.

koolrizi
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Hey everyone,
I got the following Fourier series

F.S f(x)= (pi/2) - (4/pi) \sumn=1,3.. to infinity (1/n^2 cos (nx))

l= pi

After deriving it the question now is how can i use it to show

\sum n=1 to infinity (1/(2n-1)^2= 1+ 1/3^2 + 1/5^2 +... = pi^2/8

I think I am not sure what I have to do here.

Thanks
 
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Usually the idea is to find some value of x that makes your Fourier series into the series in n that you want. If you choose x=pi/2 for example, cos(nx) will vanish for odd n. Then you'd plug your choice of x into the function f(x), for which you presumably have a closed form (but you haven't told us what it is).
 
Last edited:
Can you think of a value for x such that the cosine becomes zero for all even n, and non-zero (for example 1) for all odd n? Then calculate f(x) for this x.
 
f(x)= |x| over (-pi,pi]
-x over -pi<x<= 0 and x over 0<x<=pi
 
If i use x=pi/2 in Fourier series cos nx vanishes and i have 1/n^2 which for odd numbers is 1/(2n-1)^2

I can get that. how would i prove the part series converges to pi^2/8

Thanks
 
Forgot to mention the question. question was to use Fourier series and x=0 to prove it. so i cannot use x= pi/2 can i?
 
The x=pi/2 was just an example. It seems like the question even gives you the value of x you should use, so just plug it into the series and the function and you have your answer.
 

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