Can one construct a function having the following properties ?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the existence of a function f(x): ℝ → ℝ such that the limit of x f(x) as x approaches 0 equals a non-zero constant a. Participants explore various approaches and implications related to this problem, including the behavior of limits and continuity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether a function f(x) can exist such that lim_{x \to 0} x f(x) = a ≠ 0.
  • Another participant asserts that such a function exists and prompts others to consider the limit of f(x) as x approaches 0.
  • A suggestion is made that f(x) = 1/x could be a starting point, although it does not work at x = 0.
  • One participant claims that there is indeed a function f(x) that meets the criteria, though the reasoning is not fully elaborated.
  • A method is proposed involving the substitution of limits with functions, suggesting that defining ε(x) and g(x) can help find a suitable f(x).
  • A specific function f(x) = 1/x for x ≠ 0 and f(0) = 0 is presented as an example that satisfies lim_{x \to 0} x f(x) = 1, while noting that continuity at x = 0 is not possible for a function that meets the original criteria.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the existence and properties of such a function, with some asserting its existence and others questioning the implications regarding continuity and limits. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the specific characteristics of the function.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the importance of defining functions and limits carefully, noting that certain assumptions about continuity and behavior at x = 0 may affect the validity of proposed functions.

funcalys
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Is there a function [itex]f(x): \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}[/itex] such that [itex]\lim_{x \to 0} x f(x) = a \neq 0[/itex].
 
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Such a function exists. What did you try already??

What can you tell about ##\lim_{x\rightarrow 0} f(x)##. Is it possible that this limit is finite?
 
If f(x) = 1/x then x f(x) = 1, except that doesn't work in x = 0. But maybe that will get you started.
 
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Haha this thread is getting confusing.

In the end the answer is: yes, there is a function [itex]f(x): \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}[/itex] such that [itex]\lim_{x \to 0} x f(x) = a \neq 0[/itex].
 
Yes, the trick with limits is to substitute them with functions so you get a normal equation:

Write xf(x) + ε(x) = g(x)

with ε(x) and g(x) such as
lim (x->0) ε(x) = 0 and lim (x->0) g(x) = a

so that lim (x->0) ( xf(x) + ε(x) = g(x) ) <=> lim (x->0) xf(x) = a

Now define a ε(x) and g(x) that satisfy those conditions and you can find a function f(x) that satisfies that limit.

If you want x = 0 to be in the domain of f(x), you should also set the conditions ε(0) = 0 and g(0) = 0.
 
The function f(x)= 1/x if [itex]x\ne 0[/itex], f(0)= 0 is a perfectly good function that maps all R, one to one, onto R, such that [tex]\lim_{x\to 0} xf(x)= 1[/tex]. Of course, a function such that [tex]\lim_{x\to 0} xf(x)[/tex] is non-zero cannot be continuous at x= 0.
 

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