NoahAfrican said:
Sorry Russ, I am not trying to dodge anything. Nearly every term in the English language has multiple working definitions. The fact that you presented one, does not discredit my usage.
That's a cop-out. You are not permitted, in a scientific discussion, to change the definition of words at will to suit your argument. You misused the word and now are trying to dodge that by changing its definition.
In any case, this doesn't change the fact that your initial claim is false (indeed, it is virtually an admission that its false):
I used the example of home ownership to make my point a few threads ago and I will repeat it. The fact that your home increases in value in real or constant dollars does not mean that you have new WEALTH, but rather, an INCREASE in wealth.
Ok, fine. Yesterday you had $10, today you have $20. Thats certainly not
constant wealth as you claimed before. "New wealth"? "Increased wealth"? Whatever - perhaps you now need to make-up a new definition of "constant wealth"...?
The separation that you are ignoring is between the intangible and the tangible. The concept of value is an intangible and variable phenomenon. Land is a tangible and finite phenomenon.
Are you saying a lump of gold is
not a tangible asset? And besides - "variable" and "finite" are not opposites. Your initial argument was that wealth is
constant. Are you changing your argument again?
It is an ASSET if owned. All REAL wealth is tied to TANGIBLE ASSETS.
Fine again (to show that wealth is not constant, I don't even need intangible assets) - if you don't know you own a golden nugget, is its value factored into the value of your land?
One can have intangible WEALTH in the form of stock ownership, but that is simply electronic wealth that is not tangible. Thus, when I use the term wealth I am talking about wealth in the form of tangible assets owned by entities.
I'm sorry, but this is just you not understanding what stocks are. Its a big concept to get your arms around, but stock ownership is, quite literally, ownership of the company itself - including ownership of its
tangible assets.
All the territory/land is claimed. It is either owned privately or by the government.
Fine again - quantity of land owned is now constant and finite. Agreed. But the value of that land, both tangible and intangible, is certainly not constant. Is it finite? I'm not sure, but that wasn't your initial claim, so its irrelevant.
Again, the number one conduit to wealth in America is and has been real estate. In Old Europe the class structure was primarily set by those who owned land and those who did not.
Agreed. This concept of wealth is archaic. It hasn't been the driving force in economics since before the industrial revolution. You need to get out of the 19th century.
The problem I see is that most of you seem to think that we are beyond the point of Land being the most dominant form of wealth, when the world has not.
That is precisely the problem - you're looking at the mirror from the wrong side. Land isn't (this is a fact), nor should it be (this is the current theory) the dominant form of wealth. Your theory would be a disaster if put into practice - its has some things in common with communism, but its even worse. Communism (in practice anyway) took into account the variability of the value of assets of all kinds and the importance of natural resources (indeed- the USSR survived by sucking its land dry).
Argue intrinsic vs intangible wealth all you want - the fact is that this wealth, no matter how one gets it, can be used to purchase a loaf of bread - or even a piece of land. That makes it real enough.