Can Quantum Eraser Experiments Predict the Future?

  • #51
vanesch said:
You are mixing up semiclassical and quantum descriptions, which do not allow to show when Born's rule can be applied.
Hrrmmm, well, I had thought that anything with a wavelength pretty much had to have a phase. But OK, you know a lot more of the formal stuff than I do, I'll take your word for it.

vanesch said:
But I came to realize that the issue is much more complicated than I thought of.

I quickly tried to work it out, and then I realized that there is only one way to make sense to the "coherent emission of a photon by stimulated emission", and that is by throwing the full machinery of QED on it, and see how an incoming coherent state (that's the only way to make a link between the classical phase of an EM wave and the photon description) interacts with an excited model atom (a 2-level system please, not a real atom!)
You feel in your bones that it will be full of superpositions :smile:, but I got stuck trying to work it out, and I'm now reading up on it in Mandel and Wolf.
I'll come back to the issue when I cleared it out myself.

cheers,
Patrick.
You know, I have a question. I had thought that all of the talk about electrons being waves, and the phase angle, and all of that, linked right up with classical wave mechanics, and that that was one of the links between QM and CM. From what I'm seeing here, though, it sounds like the phase being used in the probability calculations is a highly abstract entity that has nothing to do with the classical phase of the wave. So I got a question- what determines the phase of the electron wave? I don't mean around the atom, I mean in an electron beam. I'm sure if you put it in an atom, it gets a lot more complex- and IIRC, the classical wavelength is really important, because the shells are resonant whole numbers of classical wavelengths, right?
 
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  • #52
JesseM said:
Are you sure about this? I had thought the peaks and troughs were attributes of the wavefunction, not actual observable quantities like position and momentum, so there wouldn't be any uncertainty in the positions of maximum and minimum amplitude. But that's just how it works in nonrelativistic QM, it's possible things could work differently in quantum field theory. But if you think they do, are you basing this on any source or is it just your own inference?
No, it's my own inference. And probably wrong, judging by what I just got back from V.
 
  • #53
Schneibster said:
You know, I have a question. I had thought that all of the talk about electrons being waves, and the phase angle, and all of that, linked right up with classical wave mechanics, and that that was one of the links between QM and CM. From what I'm seeing here, though, it sounds like the phase being used in the probability calculations is a highly abstract entity that has nothing to do with the classical phase of the wave.

There are several issues here, and it all comes down to different aspects of quantum field theory. But no panic, you don't need to study that in all detail with all the renormalization and everything to come clear of it.

First, there is the "non-relativistic" quantum particle, with mass (it is trickier to treat a zero-mass particle non-relativistically, and that's where I got myself in a mess by giving that laser example ! But I promise you that I will try to put my "money" (time and posts) where my mouth is :-), such as an electron, or a neutron.

You have to choose a basis, such as the position basis or the momentum basis, to work in. If you work in the "position" basis, there is ONE possible quantum state corresponding to each position (x,y,z) ; and we denote that state by |x,y,z> (or by |x> or something, doesn't matter).
Applying the Born rule in that basis means that you assign a probability to find the particle to each position.
If you choose to work in the momentum basis, then to each momentum vector, (kx, ky, kz) there corresponds ONE quantum state |kx,ky,kz> or for short |k>.

Note that in quantum mechanics, a state |u> and exp(i a) |u> represent exactly the same state.

It turns out that the position state |x> is a superposition of momentum states, namely the integral over all k of exp(i k x) |k> and vice versa:

A momentum state |k> is a superposition of position states:
Integral over all x of exp(- i k x) |x>.

When you write a momentum state IN THE POSITION BASE, then you CALL THE WAVE FUNCTION this exp(- i k x) : they are the coefficients in the superposition of the position state |x> in the considered state, namely the momentum state |k>.
The absolute square of that coefficient gives you the probability, at that moment, if you measure the position, to find the particle in state |x> (in position x) ; this is an application of the Born rule at that point.

You also see that, because |k> and exp(i a) |k> represent the same state, that the wave function exp(- i k x) or the wave function exp( - i k x + i a) describe the same physical state.

So there is no meaning attached to "the phase of the electron wave function".

What can happen, however, such as in a double slit experiment, is that we reason "as if it were a classical wave" (because the unitary evolution equations will be very similar), and we calculate "optical path differences" with "partial waves that interfere". That's a shortcut, which is in fact meant to calculate the final wave function (on the screen) of the electron. Indeed, "interference effects" will then cause you to have a wave function of which the amplitude will not be a constant. This is, as I said, using "classical wave theory" to calculate THE QUANTUMMECHANICAL UNITARY EVOLUTION as expressed in superpositions of position states.
So what seems to be a "classical calculation" when you use a classical field to do quantum mechanics of particles, comes actually down to applying unitary quantum mechanical evolution. But it is a mathematical trick, that can only be applied when talking about the same particle.
If you apply the Born rule somewhere, you do not "switch to the classical wave" but you would switch to "the classical intensities" and your wave is dead. You only do that when you project on a screen (and it is for all practical purposes - thanks to decoherence theory).

However, working with the classical electromagnetic field is a lot trickier. In fact, the mapping between the classical EM field and the QM representation requires the full machinery of QED. The EM field is not really "the field of the photon", although you MAY use it that way if you work with a one-photon state, in the same way as we did above. But then this is just a mathematical trick, not a correspondence with a real EM field.
The reason is exactly the one you are struggling with:
a real EM field has a definite phase, while a one-photon state hasn't.
So if you want to relate to the "real phase" of a classical EM field, you need to construct, what is called "coherent states".
QED sees the quantum EM field in several states, but now the number of photons (it is in fact the DEFINITION of what is a photon...) is variable. So the different possible quantum states of the quantum EM field are:

|0> Nothing, the vacuum
|k> One - photon state with momentum k (for all vectors k)
|k1,k2> 2 - photon states ; one with momentum k1 and one with momentum k2.
|k1,k2,k3>
|k1,k2,k3,k4>
...
|n-photon state>
...
(I dropped the 2 possible polarisations for each photon).

Note again that there is no "phase" attached to each photon, or to each state. Each state is just a bucket saying that there are 7 photons, one with momentum k1, one with momentum k2... No position, no phase.
It is only if we limit ourselves to one-photon states that we can play the trick with the "wave function".

What corresponds now to a classical EM field WITH phase ?

It is the state, described by the following superposition:

|\alpha,k> = N \sum_{n} \frac{\alpha^n}{n!}|k,k,k..(n)..k>

Here, we have the coherent state which corresponds to a plane wave with wave vector k, intensity given by |alpha|^2 and phase (this time the real, classical phase of the corresponding classical EM field) by the phase of alpha.
You see that we can, as usual, change the quantum phase of the state, it doesn't change the "classical phase" which is encoded in the relative phases of the terms in the superposition.
You also see that a well-defined classical wave consists of superpositions of quantum states with different photon numbers. In fact, this state can also be shown to give rise to the Poisson statistics if we will count photons with a photon detector (applying Born's rule to this state in this basis).

I was trying to work out the effect of stimulated emission, in which I tried to show that this transforms a coherent state in another coherent state with slightly more amplitude, but my calculation screwed up and I have to find out where it did.

cheers,
patrick.
 
  • #54
Thank you, Patrick; that hardly says enough to cover the effort you went to, so, let me say also: I really appreciate it.

I have a question: What is denoted by exp(- i k x)? I am not familiar with this notation.

I will make some comments on your post shortly, not to dispute but to make sure I understand it properly. This is a question that I have not received an answer to before, and I have asked others. So again, I really do appreciate your effort here.
 
  • #55
Schneibster said:
What is denoted by exp(- i k x)? I am not familiar with this notation.

It is e^{- i k x}

e is the neperian logarithm base (2.78...)
i is the imaginary unit

In real and imaginary components, we have:

e^{- i k x} = \cos(k x) - i \sin(k x)

I hope this is somehow familiar ?

cheers,
patrick.
 
  • #56
I will outline what I tried to do in my calculation, and where it screws up.

In the following, |n> will denote an n-photon state, all with the same momentum k.

A simple (too simple) way to describe emission by an excited atom is:

|excited atom> |n> \rightarrow a |excited atom> |n> + b \sqrt{n+1} |desexcited atom>|n+>

If you naively apply this to a coherent state:

\sum_n \alpha^n/n! |n>

then you find something that takes on the appearance of:

a \sum_n \alpha^n/n! |n>|excited> + \sum_n \alpha^n/n! b \sqrt{n} |n+1>|desexcited>

But this cannot be right. First of all, I don't manage to get the second term in the right form of a coherent state. And that would still leave me with a superposition between excited and unexcited atoms.

What is wrong of course is that there is not only emission, but also absorption, and that will retransform back the |n+1> state into an |n> state. So one should really solve the evolution equation completely, and not separate absorption and emission. And that's where I'm stuck for the moment.

cheers,
patrick.
 
  • #57
vanesch said:
It is e^{- i k x}

e is the neperian logarithm base (2.78...)
i is the imaginary unit

In real and imaginary components, we have:

e^{- i k x} = \cos(k x) - i \sin(k x)

I hope this is somehow familiar ?

cheers,
patrick.
Sure, I get it; is there some reason you couldn't have put it that way in the first place?
 
  • #58
Schneibster said:
Sure, I get it; is there some reason you couldn't have put it that way in the first place?

Sigh, the exponential notation exp( X) is entirely equivalent to the power notation e^X. They are used interchangeably throughout math and physics.
 
  • #59
selfAdjoint said:
Sigh, the exponential notation exp( X) is entirely equivalent to the power notation e^X. They are used interchangeably throughout math and physics.
Gee, that's two smartass comments in a row! What, has everybody got a stick up their ass today?

Sorry, son, I hadn't come across that notation before. Do you want me to bow down before your splenderiferous awesomeness now, or can I wait until next Tuesday?
 
  • #60
Schneibster said:
Sure, I get it; is there some reason you couldn't have put it that way in the first place?

ASCII laziness. exp(a) types easier than the power notation, and moreover you don't have to lower font size, which makes "a" usually more readable.
And, as SA pointed out, it is standard notation, so I didn't realize it would confuse anybody.

cheers,
Patrick.
 
  • #61
vanesch said:
ASCII laziness. exp(a) types easier than the power notation, and moreover you don't have to lower font size, which makes "a" usually more readable.
And, as SA pointed out, it is standard notation, so I didn't realize it would confuse anybody.

cheers,
Patrick.
Thanks, Patrick, I appreciate the explanation. I am used to scientific notation for quantities like 4x10E3, or 6.35x10E-6, and I figured exp meant exponent, but what stumped me was exponent of WHAT BASE?
 
  • #62
Schneibster said:
To put this another way, the scattering matrix of a photon from an atom at the peak of the pressure wave is different from the scattering matrix of a photon from an atom at the trough, and we can mathematically represent this difference using the contrivance called the phonon. It is then possible to account for "photon-phonon scattering" as this difference in the matrix. But the phonon has no real existence, just as the "hole" does not.

As I understand it, some people think ordinary particles are just as much a mathematical contrivance as quasiparticles like phonons; the basic entity is the quantum field, and particles are just a convenient way to talk about decoherent trajectories. I think this point of view makes a lot of sense.

See e.g. There is no "first" quantization
 
  • #63
Yes, I have come across that point of view as well. I'm currently trying to sort out what I think about it as opposed to more traditional ideas.
 
  • #64
Patrick, did you ever figure out your problem?

And will we ever get to the point where I can get some answers to the questions I asked in my initial post in this thread?
 
  • #65
Didn't mean to bring the thread back from the dead, but I worked on a QE experiment last summer - maybe our paper would be helpful. We've fixed the problem in the explanation that the earlier version had.

http://marcus.whitman.edu/~beckmk/QM/qe/qe.pdf

Ashifi.
 
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  • #66
one_stinky_bum said:
Didn't mean to bring the thread back from the dead, but I worked on a QE experiment last summer - maybe our paper would be helpful. We've fixed the problem in the explanation that the earlier version had.

http://marcus.whitman.edu/~beckmk/QM/qe/qe.pdf

Ashifi.

Nice paper :-)

However, what I find strange in these reasonings is that one insists on ERASING information. Of course, this somehow comes down to the same thing, but I find it more mysterious that "erased" information gives rise to interference. Usually one needs to EXTRACT INCOMPATIBLE information in order to obtain interference.

What I mean is the following. In the "classical" quantum erasure experiment where one can use the idler polarisation "to find out which path the signal photon took" or where one can "erase that information", what one actually needs when "erasing that information" is to extract information of an incompatible variable in order to subselect a sample which does show interference. Of course, when one extracts that information, and because of the incompatibility of that measurement with the "which path" measurement, one has in fact also lost every possibility to recover that which path information, so one can say, with some poetic liberty, that one has "erased" that which path information. But what one really needed was to EXTRACT other information !
A simple way to demonstrate this, is in the interference or not of the two beams obtained from the signal beam. It is not because the idler beam is dumped into a block of hot graphite (which also erases all possibilities of recovering the which path information from that beam), that suddenly an interference pattern appears at the signal side. It is because you need to have a coincident CLICK of the the idler under 45 degrees that you can select one of the two subsamples at the signal side. So I'd say that in this case, it is clear that you *need to extract* information, and that "erasure" is not sufficient (or has in fact anything to do with it). But, as I said, it is true that the extraction of the needed information makes you make an incompatible measurement with the "which path" measurement ; and as such you did erase this information, as a side effect.
The reason you need information extraction is that in ALL these potential "which path" experiments, you have lack of interference, or, what comes down to the same, a superposition of two shifted interference patterns (because sin^2 + cos^2 = 1). In order to separate out one of both subsamples (the cos^2 one, or the sin^2 one), you need extra information. It is the extraction of that extra information which is incompatible with the extraction of the "which path" information.

As you point out in the paper, around equation (2), you need to know whether you will be in the +45 or the -45 branch, because it are these two branches which give rise to the two interference patterns (the cos^2 and the sin^2).

I don't, however agree with the explanation on top of page 9: indeed, if you DUMP the idler beam in a hot graphite block, you erased the information also. That doesn't make the interference pattern appear at the signal side.

I don't agree to what is stated below equation (4) either: both density matrices are equal, and as such, the mixed states are identical. It is an error that is easily made (I've been guilty of that myself and been corrected for it a few times): different statistical compositions of pure states can give rise to identical mixtures. In quantum statistics, if the density matrices are identical, the mixtures are identical, even if you composed them by lumping together different pure states. You have the liberty to write the mixed state in the hh + vv way, or in the ++ + -- (45 degree) way. Both are diagonal density matrices with 1/2 on the diagonal, and as you know, a unitary transformation keeps such a scalar matrix a scalar diagonal matrix.
The reason why these mixtures are physically identical is that ALL expectation values of ALL possible measurements (which constitute all what is observable) are given by Tr(rho A). So if the rho's are identical, there is NO WAY to distinguish the two mixtures, hence they are physically identical.

You are cheating if you look at the "interference of fringes and anti-fringes" because to do that you have to synchronize with your 1 Hz generator. If you want the 1 Hz generator to make a "mixed state", then you shouldn't analyse results on the 1 Hz scale, but you should accumulate data over many cycles ; otherwise you're not working with the mixture, but with the individual |HH> and |VV> states ; now THERE is of course a difference between a |HH> state and a |45 45> state of course. There is no difference between the mixtures. But you didn't really make a mixture because the 1 Hz scale is too remote from the frequency of the light or the time constants of the detectors, and there are many simple techniques to recover the pure states from the data. The reason is that you are working with an analysis that supposes stationary random processes and that your 1 Hz modulated choice is not a stationary process (except if you look onto it on a timescale which is very long compared to 1 second).

cheers,
Patrick.
 
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  • #67
I'll run your comments by my prof (Mark) and I'll get back to you. I don't want to say something I'm not 100% sure of.
 
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