Can the value of a be solved for in the infinite series convergence equation?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving for the value of 'a' in the infinite series convergence equation \(\sum^{\infty}_{x=1} \frac{\cos(14.1347 \ln (x))}{x^{a}} = 0\). The equation can be expressed as \((1/2)\Re \zeta(a-ui) = 0\), where \(u = 14.1347\) and \(\zeta\) represents the Riemann zeta function. The proposed solution is \(a = 1/2\), particularly when \(u\) is adjusted to a nearby zero of the zeta function. It is noted that the original series likely converges only for \(a > 1\), indicating that the analysis pertains to analytic continuation.

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[tex]\sum^{\infty}_{x=1} \frac{cos(14.1347 \ln (x))}{x^{a}} = 0[/tex]

Is there a way to solve for a? I don't think so but maybe someone here will have an insight as to what to do..
 
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This equation is

[tex](1/2)\Re \zeta(a-ui) = 0[/tex]

for [tex]u = 14.1347[/tex], where [tex]\Re[/tex] signifies the real part, and [tex]\zeta[/tex] is the Riemann zeta function.

The attached picture shows the graph (I did it without the factor 1/2). The .mw file is the Maple code that generated this picture.

So [tex]a=1/2[/tex] looks like the solution. If we replace [tex]u=14.1347[/tex] by the nearby zero of the zeta function [tex]u = 14.134725141734693790\cdots[/tex] then the solution would be exactly [tex]a=1/2[/tex] of course.

Caveat. Probably the original series converges only for [tex]a > 1[/tex] , so my analysis applies only to the analytic continuation.
 

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g_edgar said:
This equation is

[tex](1/2)\Re \zeta(a-ui) = 0[/tex]

for [tex]u = 14.1347[/tex], where [tex]\Re[/tex] signifies the real part, and [tex]\zeta[/tex] is the Riemann zeta function.

The attached picture shows the graph (I did it without the factor 1/2). The .mw file is the Maple code that generated this picture.

So [tex]a=1/2[/tex] looks like the solution. If we replace [tex]u=14.1347[/tex] by the nearby zero of the zeta function [tex]u = 14.134725141734693790\cdots[/tex] then the solution would be exactly [tex]a=1/2[/tex] of course.

Caveat. Probably the original series converges only for [tex]a > 1[/tex] , so my analysis applies only to the analytic continuation.


OMG brilliant! Thanks! I realized this a few days ago, and just realized now that I realized it, and it looks a bit clearer now. weird.. but I am not complaining, thanks!
 

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