- #1
entropy1
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Suppose we have two variables A and B. A has a truly random distribution over {0,1} with P(0)=P(1)=0.5 . B has the same distribution.
Now suppose that A and B always show both a 1 or both a 0. This would be a strong correlation between A and B.
Now could this be called 'a coincidence'? And if not, in what way does it differ from a coincidence?
Now suppose that A and B always show both a 1 or both a 0. This would be a strong correlation between A and B.
Now could this be called 'a coincidence'? And if not, in what way does it differ from a coincidence?