MHB Can This Complex Inequality Be Proven?

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    Inequality Proof
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The discussion focuses on proving the inequality 1 - ((λ - (m + 1)) * (m! / λ^(m + 1)) * Σ(λ^j / j!)) ≤ λ / ((λ - (m + 1))^2) under the condition m + 1 < λ. Participants explore the use of mathematical properties, including the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality and the rearrangement of terms to facilitate proof. The inequality is reformulated to compare squared terms, allowing for the application of these properties. The conversation includes detailed steps for expanding and simplifying both sides of the inequality. The goal is to establish the validity of the inequality through rigorous mathematical manipulation.
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Hallo, can someone help me to proof this inequality:

$$ 1-(\lambda-(m+1)) \cdot \frac{m!}{\lambda^{m+1}} \cdot \sum_{j=0}^{m} \frac{\lambda^j}{j!} \leq \frac{\lambda}{(\lambda-(m+1))^2} $$ under condition $$ m+1 < \lambda $$.
 
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We will use the following properties:1. For any positive number a and b, we have a^2+b^2 \geq 2ab 2. For any non-negative numbers x and y, we have x+y \geq 2\sqrt{xy}We can rewrite the inequality as follows:\frac{1-(\lambda-(m+1)) \cdot \frac{m!}{\lambda^{m+1}} \cdot \sum_{j=0}^{m} \frac{\lambda^j}{j!}}{\frac{\lambda}{(\lambda-(m+1))^2}} \leq 1 Using property 1 we obtain:(1-(\lambda-(m+1)) \cdot \frac{m!}{\lambda^{m+1}} \cdot \sum_{j=0}^{m} \frac{\lambda^j}{j!})^2 \leq (\frac{\lambda}{(\lambda-(m+1))^2})^2 Expanding the left hand side of this inequality gives us:1-2(\lambda-(m+1)) \cdot \frac{m!}{\lambda^{m+1}} \cdot \sum_{j=0}^{m} \frac{\lambda^j}{j!}+(\lambda-(m+1))^2 \cdot \frac{m!^2}{\lambda^{2(m+1)}} \cdot \left(\sum_{j=0}^{m} \frac{\lambda^j}{j!}\right)^2 \leq \frac{\lambda^2}{(\lambda-(m+1))^4}Using property 2 for the term in the middle on the left hand side of the inequality gives us:1-2(\lambda-(m+1))^2 \cdot \frac{m!^2}{\lambda^{2(m+1)}} \cdot \sum_{j=0}^{m} \frac{\lambda^j}{j!} +(\lambda-(m+1))^2 \cdot \frac{m!^2}{\lambda^{2(m+1)}} \cdot \left(\sum_{j=0}^{m
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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