MHB Can we get to the desired relation?

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The discussion centers on deriving the Euler equation for the functional J(y) and whether the current formulation is correct. A participant points out potential errors in the initial derivation and suggests a corrected approach using the relationship between L_y and L_{y'}. They provide a detailed breakdown of the steps leading to a revised equation, which closely resembles the desired form. The conversation highlights the importance of careful manipulation of terms in variational calculus. Ultimately, the revised equation is acknowledged as being nearly correct.
evinda
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Hi! (Wave)

I want to show that the Euler equation for the functional $J(y)= \int_a^b f(x,y) \sqrt{1+y'^2}dx$ has the form:

$$f_y-f_xy'-\frac{fy''}{1+y'^2}=0$$$$L(x,y,y')= f(x,y) \sqrt{1+y'^2} dx$$

Substituting $L_y(x,y,y')=f_y(x,y) \sqrt{1+y'^2}, \ L_{y'}(x,y,y')= f(x,y) \frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}}$, I got the following:$$f_y(1+y'^2)-f_x y'- f y''+ \frac{f (y')^2}{(1+y'^2)}=0$$

Can we get from this relation to the desired one, or have I done something wrong? (Thinking)
 
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evinda said:
$$f_y(1+y'^2)-f_x y'- f y''+ \frac{f (y')^2}{(1+y'^2)}=0$$

Can we get from this relation to the desired one, or have I done something wrong? (Thinking)

Hey! (Blush)

I think there is something wrong in your result. (Sadface)

I think we should have:
\begin{aligned}
L_y - \d {} x L_{y'} &= f_y\sqrt{1+y'^2} - \d {} x\left(f \cdot \frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}}\right) \\
&= f_y\sqrt{1+y'^2} - (f_x + f_yy')\frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}} - f \d {} x\left(\frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}}\right) \\
&= f_y\left(\sqrt{1+y'^2} - y'\frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}}\right) - f_x\frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}} - f \d {} x\left(\frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}}\right) \\
&= 0 \end{aligned}
Multiply by $\sqrt{1+y'^2}$ to get:
$$\Rightarrow
f_y\left((1+y'^2) - y'y'\right) - f_xy' - f \sqrt{1+y'^2}\d {} x\left(\frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}}\right)
= 0 \\
\Rightarrow
f_y - f_xy' - f \sqrt{1+y'^2}\d {} x\left(\frac{y'}{\sqrt{1+y'^2}}\right)
= 0$$

Hey! That is almost what we want! (Wait)
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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