Can we say N is strictly a subset of P(N)?

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SUMMARY

The discussion confirms that the set of natural numbers, denoted as \mathbb{N}, is strictly a subset of its power set, \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N}). Using the standard set-theoretic definition, \mathbb{N} is defined as \{0, 1, 2, ...\}, where 0 is represented as the empty set, and each subsequent natural number is defined as the set of all preceding numbers. The inclusion \mathbb{N} \subseteq \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N}) is established, with the strictness of the inclusion demonstrated by the example of the singleton set \{2\}, which is a subset of \mathbb{N} but not an element of \mathbb{N}.

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Essentially, do we know [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex][itex]\subset[/itex][itex]{P}\mathbb{(N)}[/itex]?
 
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A lot depends on your definition of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex]. But if we take the usual set theoretic definition, then the inclusion is indeed true.

What is the set theoretic definition of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex]? It goes as follows:

  • Define [itex]0=\emptyset[/itex]
  • If [itex]0,...,n[/itex] are defined, then define [itex]n+1=\{0,...,n\}[/itex]
  • Define [itex]\mathbb{N}=\{0,1,2,...\}[/itex]

Now we can check that [itex]\mathbb{N}\subseteq \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})[/itex]. First of all, [itex]\emptyset[/itex] is a subset of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex] and thus [itex]\emptyset\in \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})[/itex]. Furthermore, [itex]\{0,...,n\}[/itex] is a subset of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex], and thus [itex]n+1=\{0,...,n\}\in \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})[/itex].
This shows that [itex]\mathbb{N}\subseteq \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})[/itex]. The inclusion is strict since [itex]\{2\}[/itex] is a subset of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex], but not an element.
 

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