Nice! I also solved the problem by a similar approach.
Let \( \displaystyle J=\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \frac{1}{a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x}}dx \)
\[ \begin{align*} J &= \int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \frac{1}{a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x}}dx \\ &= \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{a+bx^2}dx \\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{ab}} \tan^{-1}{\left(\frac{x\sqrt{b}}{\sqrt{a}} \right)}\Big|_0^{\infty}\\ &= \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{ab}}\end{align*} \]
Now,
\( \displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{dJ}{da}&=-\int_{0}^{\pi / 2}\frac{\cos^2(x)}{(a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x})^2} dx\\ \frac{\pi}{4\sqrt{a^3 b}} &= \int_{0}^{\pi / 2}\frac{\cos^2(x)}{(a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x})^2} dx \quad [1]\end{align*} \)
also
\( \displaystyle \begin{align*} \frac{dJ}{db}&=-\int_{0}^{\pi / 2}\frac{\sin^2(x)}{(a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x})^2} dx\\ \frac{\pi}{4\sqrt{a b^3}} &= \int_{0}^{\pi / 2}\frac{\sin^2(x)}{(a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x})^2} dx \quad [2]\end{align*} \)
Adding [1] and [2]:
\( \displaystyle \begin{align*} \int_{0}^{\pi / 2}\frac{\sin^2(x)+\cos^2(x)}{(a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x})^2} dx &= \frac{\pi}{4\sqrt{a^3 b}}+\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{b^3 a}} \\ \int_{0}^{\pi / 2}\frac{1}{(a\cos^2{x}+b\sin^2{x})^2}dx &= \frac{\pi}{4\sqrt{ab}}\left( \frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right) \\ I(a,b) &= \frac{\pi}{4\sqrt{ab}}\left( \frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right)\end{align*}\)