Cant quite see this grad relation

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical relationship involving gradients in multiple dimensions, specifically addressing the condition under which the gradients of two variables are parallel when the gradient of a function is zero. Participants explore the implications of the chain rule, the concept of parallel vectors, and the validity of certain mathematical expressions.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question the transition from differential notation to gradient notation, suggesting it seems circular.
  • There is uncertainty about how the condition $\nabla f = 0$ implies that $\nabla u$ and $\nabla v$ are parallel.
  • One participant proposes that if $\nabla f = 0$, then the only way for two vectors to sum to zero is if they are equal and opposite, implying they must be parallel.
  • Another participant raises a concern about whether the expression $\pd f u \pd u x = \pd f x$ holds true, indicating confusion over its completeness.
  • An example function is suggested to clarify the discussion, but its implications remain unresolved.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of the gradient condition and the validity of certain mathematical expressions. There is no consensus on whether the gradients are indeed parallel under the given conditions.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the discussion is situated within the context of vector calculus, specifically regarding partial derivatives and multi-variable calculus, which may influence their interpretations and assumptions.

ognik
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Book states: $\nabla f\left(u, v\right) =0 = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\nabla u + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v} \nabla v, \therefore \nabla u$ and $ \nabla v $ are parallel

1. I know $d f\left(u, v\right) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}du + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v} dv$, but how can we just replace the d<...> by $\nabla <... >$ like that? seems a little circular?

2. Can't anyway see how that makes them parallel?
I get $ =\frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\left( \pd{u}{x}, \pd{u}{y},\d{u}{z}\right) + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v}\left( \pd{v}{x}, \pd{v}{y},\d{v}{z}\right)
= \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right) + \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right)$ so both tterms are equal and parallel, but why does that make the $\nabla$ parts parallel?
 
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ognik said:
Book states: $\nabla f\left(u, v\right) =0 = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\nabla u + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v} \nabla v, \therefore \nabla u$ and $ \nabla v $ are parallel

1. I know $d f\left(u, v\right) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}du + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v} dv$, but how can we just replace the d<...> by $\nabla <... >$ like that? seems a little circular?

It's a generalization for multiple dimensions.
The chain rule for multiple dimensions says:
$$\d f x = \pd f u \pd u x + \pd f v \pd v x$$

2. Can't anyway see how that makes them parallel?
I get $ =\frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\left( \pd{u}{x}, \pd{u}{y},\d{u}{z}\right) + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v}\left( \pd{v}{x}, \pd{v}{y},\d{v}{z}\right)
= \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right) + \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right)$ so both tterms are equal and parallel, but why does that make the $\nabla$ parts parallel?

Are they really parallel?
And does $\pd f u \pd u x = \pd f x$ hold?

Let's pick an example.
Suppose we pick $f(u,v)=u^2+v^2-1, \quad u(x,y)=x+y, \quad v(x,y)=x-y$
How would that work out?Oh, and I've moved your thread to Calculus, which is where Partial Derivatives and Multi-variable Calculus belongs.
Please check the descriptions of the forums on the main page.
 
I like Serena said:
It's a generalization for multiple dimensions.
The chain rule for multiple dimensions says:
$$\d f x = \pd f u \pd u x + \pd f v \pd v x$$.
So $ \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y} = \nabla f = \left( \pd{f}{u}\pd{u}{x}+\pd{f}{v}\pd{v}{x}, \pd{f}{u}\pd{u}{y}+\pd{f}{v}\pd{v}{y} \right) = \pd{f}{u} \left( \pd{u}{x},\pd{u}{y} \right) + \pd{f}{v}\left( \pd{v}{x},\pd{v}{y} \right) ...$?

I like Serena said:
Are they really parallel?.
I couldn't see why they should be, but the book says if $\nabla f = 0$, then they are, I can't see this is a general case?

I like Serena said:
And does $\pd f u \pd u x = \pd f x$ hold?.
didn't understand why you asked, its missing the $\pd{f}{v}...$ part?

I like Serena said:
Oh, and I've moved your thread to Calculus, which is where Partial Derivatives and Multi-variable Calculus belongs.
Please check the descriptions of the forums on the main page.
Thanks, I was honestly undecided 'cos in my book this is a section on vectors, just looking at grad, curl etc...
 
ognik said:
So $ \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y} = \nabla f = \left( \pd{f}{u}\pd{u}{x}+\pd{f}{v}\pd{v}{x}, \pd{f}{u}\pd{u}{y}+\pd{f}{v}\pd{v}{y} \right) = \pd{f}{u} \left( \pd{u}{x},\pd{u}{y} \right) + \pd{f}{v}\left( \pd{v}{x},\pd{v}{y} \right) ...$?
Correct.

I couldn't see why they should be, but the book says if $\nabla f = 0$, then they are, I can't see this is a general case?
I actually overlooked that it was given that $\nabla f = 0$.
In that case they have to be parallel, since the only way 2 vectors can sum up to zero is if they are equal and opposite.
Since the partial derivatives are only scalars, that implies that one vector must be a multiple of the other. That is, parallel.

didn't understand why you asked, its missing the $\pd{f}{v}...$ part?
It's not true, which should become clear if we work out the example I posted.

Thanks, I was honestly undecided 'cos in my book this is a section on vectors, just looking at grad, curl etc...
If you look at the descriptions of the forums, it should be clear where it should go, regardless of the section in your book.
 

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